(Paper) AIIMS PG Entrance December 1999 Question Paper
Paper :
AIIMS PG Entrance December 1999 Question Paper
1. After spinal POP Cast for 2 days, patient presents with profuse bilious vomiting. Probable
diagnosis
a.duodenal obstruction
b.acute gastric dilatation
c.reflex vomiting
d. peritonitis
2. Commonest cause of loss of vision in non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is
a. vitreous hemorrhage
b.macular edema
c.traction on retina
d.subretinal hemorrhage
3. Not true about retinitis pigmentosa is
a.genetic predisposition
b.early diagnosis can prevent the progression
c.associated with systemic manifestations
d.loss of visual acuity is a late feature
4. The most widely used drug for acute angle closure glaucoma
a.timolol
b. pilocarpine
c.lansoprost
d.bromiridine 0.2%
5. A patient came to the casualty with acute bronchial asthma after treatment for
glaucoma. The probable drug may be
a.timolol
b.betaxolol
c.natoprost
d.anticholineesterase
6. In a child with retinoblastoma, which of the following is not a common finding in the
Xray
a.intraorbital calcification
b.intracerebral calcification
c.multiple cranial deposits
d.widening of optic foramen
7. A 35 year old man complains of difficulty of near vision. His distant vision was 6/6
without glasses. On retinoscopy, he had +2 DSph. bilaterally. The diagnosis is
a.presbyopia
b.ciliary spasm
c.hypermetropia
d.accomodative paralysis
8. A 40 year old lady presented with a history of seeing colored haloes in the evening. On
examination, her intraocular pressure was normal.The diagnosis is
a.prodromal stage of acute congestive glaucoma
b.acute attack of acute congestive glaucoma
c.incipient stage of chronic congestive glaucoma
9. A man with painless sudden loss of vision. On examination, a cherry red spot was seen
in the fundus and there was a cardiac murmur. The probable diagnosis is
a.CRAO b.CRVO
c.anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
d.thrombophlebitis due to SABE
10. Which of the following is not correctly matched
a.ECHO-hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
b.CMV-retinitis, esophagitis in immunocompromised
c.marburg-hemorrhagic fever
d.RSV-bronchiolitis
11. Medusa lock appearance in Xray is seen in
a.ascariasis
b.tapeworm
c.hookworm
d.ascaris and tapeworm
12. The stool of a patient was examined under the microscope and some ova were found.
After concentration in saturated saline, and on re-examination, ova were not seen. The
diagnosis is
a.necator
b.tenia
c.trichuris
d.enterobius
13. The most unlikely manifestation of polio-myelitis is
a.paralysis improves upto 6 months
b.increased DTR with preserved sensation
c.symmetric descending paralysis with preserved DTR
d.fever for 2 days and paralysis after 6 weeks
14. In the overhead tank of a hostel, cysts of entameba were found. The best method of
disinfection is
a.ultraviolet radiation
b.boiling
c.iodination
d.chlorination
15. A man from Delhi went to Bangladesh and stayed there for 2 days. On return, he
developed diarrhea and abdominal pain. The stools showed clumps of pus cells and manyRBCs. The probable pathogen is
a.EPEC
b.ETEC
c.salmonella
d.shigella dysenteriae
16. Which is not true about shigella
a.associated with HUS
b.large number of pathogens needed for infection
c.elaboration of exotoxin related to manifestation of pathology
17. The following is true about nematode
a.few organisms can cause clinical features
b.ascaris penetrates skin
c.strongyloides leads to recurrent urticaria
d.ancylostomal egg ingestion leads to autoingestion
18. Which of the following is not transmitted during pregnancy
a.hepatitis B
b.candida albicans
c.polio
d.toxoplasmosis
19. A 2 yr old child presented with a membrane in the mouth. Within 24 hrs a culture
report is needed. The preferred medium is
a.blood agar
b.loeffler's serum slope
c.lowenstein jensen
d.tellurite
20. For P.falciparum resistance to chloroquine, the drug of choice for presumptive
treatment is
a.chloroquine only
b.chloroquine+primaquine
c.sufadoxine + pyrimethamine
d.amodiaquine
21. LGV is caused by
a.chlamydia trachomatis
b.donovania granulomatis
c.H ducreyi
22. Condyloma lata is seen in
a.primary syphilis
b.secondary syphilis
c.congenital syphilis
d.late syphilis
23. The response to treatment in syphilis is assessed commonly using
a.FTA ABs IgM
b.FTA ABS
c.VDRL
d.TPHA
24. The incubation period of pertussis is
a.within 7 days
b.7-14 days
c.15-28 days
d.>28 days
25. All are found in congenital rubella except
a.deafness
b.blindness
c.IUGR
d.renal anomalies
26. Atavism is when a child resembles his
a.parents
b.grandparents
c.cousin
d.twin
27. Thrombocytopenia in an infant is seen in
a.autoimmune
b.allo(iso)immune
c.preeclampsia
d.SLE
28. A child has several petechiae and severe bruising, the most unlikely diagnosis is
a.bleeding into joints
b.ITP is the most probable diagnosis
c.increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
d.80% cases improve within 5-8 weeks
29. A 3 yr old child presented with generalized edema, marked decrease in urinary output,
BP 100/75 mm Hg, protein +++ , no RBC or WBC. Hyaline cast +. Which of the following is
true?
a.selective proteinuria
b.increased blood urea
c.complement is lowered
d.increase in plasma volume
30. A child presents with 2 episodes of hematuria at the times of respiratory infections.
There are two similar episodes in the past. Which of the following is false.
a.in 50% focal segmental and membranoproliferative changes are seen
b.increasing renal damage after each episode
c.complement level usually normal
d.ASO titre does not usually increase after hematuria
31. Which of the following is not true regarding abdominal mass in a child
a.hepatic mass is present in more than 50% neonates
b.60% of older children have malignant masses
c.neuroblastoma and neproblastoma are common malignancies
d.USG is very useful in neonates
32. A 3 month old breast fed infant presents with jaundice since birth, light stools and
urobilin absent in urine. The likely diagnosis is
a.Extra hepatic biliary atresia
b.hemolysis
c.breast milk jaundice
d.thalassemia
33. A 10 year old female who used to use the swimming pool regularly, comes with a three
day history of vomiting, fever and abdominal pain. On examination, abdominal tenderness
and guarding are present. The liver dullness is not obliterated, Likely diagnosis is
a.gangrenous intussusception
b.perforation
c.spontaneous biliary peritonitis
d.primary peritonitis
34. Rotavirus diarrhea is diagnosed by
a.ELISA for antigen in stool
b.ELISA for antigen in blood
c.immunofluorescence for antigen in stool
35. 6 year old Arun participated in an icecream eating competition and developed bloating,
diarrhea and moderate dehydration. He used to get similar episodes on consuming ice
cream and milk in the past. The likely diagnosis is
a.lactase deficiency
b.sucrase deficiency
36. A two year old child was brought to the OPD by his parents with complaints of ‘not
eating anything’. On examination her weight is 11.5kg(50th percentile of normal) and
height 75 percentile of normal. Management is
a.advise multivitamin tonic
b.force to eat
c.investigate for UTI
d.ask parents to stop worrying
37. EBV does not cause
a.IMN
b.Burkitt’s lymphoma
c.carcinoma cervix
d.nasopharyngeal carcinoma
38. Swelling at the root of nose in a 2 year old child which is compressible is
a.meningomyelocele
b.ethmoid cyst
c.caroticocavernous aneurysm
d.lacrimal duct cyst
39. A 3 month old infant was brought with complaints of profuse lacrimation. On pressure
pus exudes from the puncta. The best line of management is
a.dacryocysorhinostomy
b.syringing
c.massaging of sac with antibiotics
d.syringing and probing
40. True about IHPS is all except
a.males commonly affected
b.commonly presents at 3-8 weeks
c.Xray shows gastric dilation and gasless small int.
d.USG is of no use in diagnosis
41. Double bubble appearance and bilious vomiting is diagnostic of
a.duodenal atresia
b.pyloric stenosis
c.meconium ileus
42. A premature infant born at 32 weeks of gestation developed respiratory distress after 4
hrs of birth. The X-ray showed ground glass appearance with air bronchogram, the
probable diagnosis is
a.meconium aspiration
b.hyaline membrane
c.ARDS
43. The most common cause of shock in fracture of 10 to 12th ribs is
a.aortic tear
b.injury to abdominal solid viscera
c.damage to intercostal arteries
44. Orchidectomy is done in all except
a.male breast cancer
b.prostatic carcinoma
c.tuberculous epididymoorchitis
d.sertoli cell cancer
45. A 55 year old male patient presents with low back ache and urinary obstruction.
Additional investigation includes
a.alkaline phosphatase
b.acid phosphatase
46. A patient presented with perineal heamatoma and urinary retention following an
accident, which of the following is not included in the orders
a.IVP
b.digital per-rectal examination
c.indwelling catheter
d.i.v.fluids
47. Male presents with abdominal pain. On examination, there is tender guarding in the
right iliac fossa. What will you not advise
a.nil orally
b.i.v.dextrose
c.pethidine i.v.
d.plain Xray abdomen
48. A patient presents with abdominal pain radiating to the back. Acute pancreatitis is
suspected. Which is not a prognostic indicator
a.hypocalcemia
b.hyperglycemia
c.hyperamylasemia
d.increased LDH
49. A 26 year old male with a history of going to a party on the night before, developed
abdominal pain radiating to the back. On examination, he is apprehensive with pulse 100
per minute and BP 110/60. The diagnosis is
a.acute pancreatitis
b.acute cholecystitis
c.acute diverticulitis
d.acute appendicitis
50. Mallory Weiss tear involves
a.lower third of esophagus
b.gastroesophageal junction
c.upper third of esophagus
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