(Paper) ALL INDIA 2004 January Dental PG Section (MDS) AIPPG

PAPER : ALL INDIA 2004 January Dental PG Section (MDS) AIPPG


1. In a disease free tempromandibular joint, posterior end of the articular disc remains at:
1. 0 O' clock position.
2. 10 O' clock position.
3. 12- 12 O' clock position.
4. 2 O' clock position.


2. Which of the following teeth has maximum sensory receptors?
1. Maxillary permanent 1st molar.
2. Mandibular permanent 1st molar.
3. Mandibular permanent canine.
4. Maxillary permanent canine.


3. In a healthy gingival, the distance between gingival margin and free gingival groove is:
1. 0.1-0.5 mm.
2. 0.5-1 mm.
3. 0.5-1.5 mm.
4. 1 mm-2 mm.


4. Which of the following structures in not present on the internal surface of mandible?
1. Genial tubercle.
2. Mylohyoid ridge.
3. Lingula.
4. Mental foramen.
Ans: 4


5. Among all of the following formens in the base of skull which is the most posteriorty present:
1. Foramen spinosum.
2. Foramen rotundum.
3. Foramen Lacerum.
4. Foramen Ovale.
Ans: 1


6. Enamel etched by a tooth conditioner but not covered with a fissure sealant will:
1. Remineralize within a month.
2. Remineralize within 3 months.
3. Absorb stain and discolor the tooth.
4. Leave the tooth more susceptible to caries attack.


7. The strength of dental investment for gold alloy is dependent on the amount of:
1. Silica
2. Carbon
3. Copper
4. Gypsum
Ans: 4


8. In Erythema migrans, which papilla of tongua are absent:
1. Fungiform.
2. Foliate.
3. Filliform.
4. Circumvallate.
Ans: 3


9. Thistle-tube appearance of pulp chamber is a feature of:
1. Coronal dentin dysplasia.
2. Regional odontodysplasia.
3. Dentigenesis imperfecta.
4. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
Ans: 1


10. On clinical examination a 60 years old feamale had a turnor in the right Buccalmucosa. The size of
the tumor was about 1 cm in diameter.There was no involvement of regional lymph nodes and also has
no distant metastasis. The TNM stag of the tumor is:
1. T1 No Mo.
2. T1 N1 Mo.
3. T1 N2 Mo.
4. T2 No Mo.
Ans: 4


11. Which of the following is not a feature of torus mandibularies?
1. Common in Mongoloids.
2. Present on the lingual surface of mandible below the Mylohyoid line.
3. Usually Bilateral.
4. May of may not associatd with torus palatinus.
Ans: 2


12. The time gap between appearance of Koplik's spot and cutaneous rash in measles is:
1. 24 Hrs.
2. 3-4 days.
3. 2 weeks.
4. 10 Days.
Ans: 2


13. The drug that causes intrinsic staining of teeth due to calcium
chelation is:
1. Alizarin
2. Ampicillin.
3. Tetracycline.
4. Erythromycin.
Ans: 3


14. Which of the following medications shortens the recovery period of
pricary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
1. Acyclovir.
2. Ziduvidine.
3. Kenalog in orabase.
4. All of the above.
Ans: 1


15. The occurrence of dental caries in a population at a given point of time may be termed as:
1. Incidence.
2. Point Prevalence.
3. Period Prevalence.
4. None of the above.
Ans: 1


16. The CPITN probe has a ball end of which diameter & marking at what level:
1. 0.5 mm diameter ball and marking at 3,5,8 and 11 mm.
2. 1.0 mm diameter ball and marking at 3.5, 5.5, 8.5 and 11 mm.
3. 0.5 mm diameter ball and marking at 3.5, 5.5, 8.5 and 11 mm
4. 1.0 mm diameter ball and marking at 3,5,8 and 11 mm.
Ans: 3


17. The WHo index for fluorisis is based on:
1. Dean's index
2. Mckay's index
3. Community Fluorosis index
4. Public Health fluorosis index


18. While planning for a clinical trial for finding out the effect of a particular mouthwash on human
subjects, which kind of study design will be able to give best results:
1. Randomized controlled trial with double blind planning.
2. Clinical trial with single blind plan and crossover
3. Randomized controlled trial with no blinding and cross-over.
4. Randomized controlled trial with double blind plan and cross-over.


19. DMFT index is a:
1. Simple reversible index.
2. Cumulative irreversible index
3. Cumulative reversible index
4. Simple irreversible index
Ans: 2


20. Recommended average daily intake of fluoride from all sources
combined for adults and children is:
1. 2.o to 2.2 mg & 1.2 mg.
2. 1.2 to 2.0 mg & 1.2 mg.
3. 2.2 to 2.4 mg & 1.5 mg.
4. 2.6 to 2.8 mg & 1.4 mg.


21. Mineral trioxide aggregate used in apexification:
1. Forms an integral part of the root canal filling
2. Dissolves as the apical barrier formation progresses
3. Has not yielded good results
4. Is availabel in a paste from


22. Which of the following is the most recommended endodontic obturating material for deciduous teeth?
1. Kri paste.
2. ZOE
3. Ca(OH)2 paste
4. Maisto's paste
Ans: 2


23. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
1. Neurosurgery.
2. Day care surgery.
3. Patients with coronary artery disease.
4. In neonates.
And: 2


24. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia
in children?
1. Enflurane.
2. Isoflurane.
3. Sevoflurane.
4. Desflurane.
Ans: 3


25. When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia,
all of the following treatments may be instituted except:
1. Caroted sinus massage
2. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV
3. Direct current cardioversion
4. Verapamil 5 mg IV
Ans: 4


26. A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reducion of fractured both
bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of
persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest cause of this
neurological dysfuncion could be all of the following except:
1. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
2. A tight cast or dressing
3. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
4. Tourniquet pressure


27. The first costochondral joint is a:
1. Fibrous joint
2. Synovial joint
3. Syndesmosis
4. Syncendrosis


28. Which of the following is the feature of Y chromosome?
1. Acrocentric
2. Telocentric
3. Submetacentric
4. Metacentric


29. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
1. AUG codon
2. UAA codon
3. UAG codon
4. UGA codon
Ans: 1


30. Which of the following is a membranebound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
from ATP?
1. Tyrosine kinase
2. Polymerase
3. ATP synthase
4. Adenlylate cyclase.
Ans: 4


31. A small Ca2+ binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other protiens in
response to changes of Ca2+ concentration,is known as:
1. Cycline
2. Calmodulin
3. Collagen
4. Kinesin


32. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template
molecule is known as:
1. DNA polymerase.
2. RNA polymerase
3. Reverse transcriptase.
4. Phosphokinase.
Ans: 3


33. A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as:
1. Intron
2. Exon
3. Plasmid
4. TATA box
Ans: 1


34. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except:
1. It is devoid of perichondrium
2. It has a rich nerve supply
3. It is avascular
4. It lacks the capacity to regenerate


35. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except:
1. Lymph nodes
2. Spleen
3. Thymus
4. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes
Ans: 3


36. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to
all of the following features except:
1. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung.
2. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus.
3. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung.
4. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus.


37. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow
obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his
blood?
1. Chylomicrons
2. VLDL
3. LDL
4. HDL
Ans: 3


38. The transmembrane of a protein is likely ot have:
1. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids.
2. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids.
3. A disulphide loop
4. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids.


39. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques except:
1. Mass spectroscopy
2. RIA
3. ELISA
4. Sequencing of nucleic acid.


40. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of
Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum?
1.Inositol triphosphate
2. Parathyroid hormone
3. 1, 25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol.
4. Diacyl glycerol


41. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body's
ability to handle oxidative stress?
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Potassium
4. Selenium


42. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of
other protenis?
1. Proteases
2. Proteosomes
3. Templates
4. Chaperones
Ans: 4


43. A highly ionized drug:
1. Is excereted mainly by the kidneys
2. Crosses the placental barrir easily
3. Is well absorbed from the intestine
4. Is highly protein bound


44. All of the following are used a proxy measures for incubation
period except:
1. Latent period
2. Period of communicability
3. Serial interval
4. Generation time


45. The current recommendation for breast feeding is that:
1. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods.
2. Exclusive breast-feeding shoudl be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods.
3. Colostrum is the most suibable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days.
4. The baby should be allowed to reast feed till one year of age.


46. The following statements about breast milk are true except:
1. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months.
2. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milks is 70%
3. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow's milk.
4. It provides about 65 K cals per 100 ml.


47. Multi purpose worker scheme in India was introduced following the
recommendation of:
1. Srivastava Committee
2. Bhore Committee
3. Kartar Singh Committee
4. Mudaliar Committee


48. The usefulness of a 'screening test' in a community depends on its:
1. Sensitivity
2. Specificity
3. Reliability
4. Predictive value
Ans: 1


49. If the grading of malocclusion is classified as "mild", "moderate"
and "severe" the scale of measurement used is:
1. Interval
2. Nominal
3. Ordinal
4. Ratio
Ans: 3


50. If prevalence of dental carries is 10% the probability that three
people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:
1. 0.01
2. 0.03
3. 0.001
4. 0.003

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