(Study Material) ALL INDIA 2005 (AIPGE 2005 January, Answers, Explanation and Notes) (Pg-6)
PAPER : ALL INDIA 2005 (AIPGE 2005 January, Answers, Explanation and Notes)
Page -6
Q.126 The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is:
1 1800.
2 2100.
3 2300.
4 2900.
Answer is 4
K PARK PSM 17th ed/432
Q.127 All of the following methods are antilarval measures except:
1 Intermittent irrigation.
2 Paris green.
3 Gambusia affinis.
4 Malathion.
Answer is 4
K
PARK PSM 17th ed/546-547
- Anti-larval measure
a) Environmental control - Source reduction by intermittent irrigation, Filling
and drainage.
These methods generally produce permanent results.
b) Chemical control - commonly used larvicides are
1) Mineral oils
2) Paris green (Copper acetoarsenite)
3) Synthetic insecticides
Fenthion, chlorpyrifos and abate are the most effective larvicides.
(malathion is not much effective,c) Biological control - Gambusia affinis
Lebister reticulates(Barbados millions)So probable Answer is malathion.
Q.128 All of the following are true about the Herd Immunity for infectious
diseases except:
1 It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of
immunized
individuals.
2 It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase.
3 It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts.
4 In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual.
Answer is 2 K PARK PSM 17th ed/90
Elements, which contribute the herd immunity, are
1) Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in herd
2) Immunisation of herd
3) Herd structure.
Herd structure is never constant; it is affected by the presence and
distribution of alternative animal hosts.
- In the case of Tetanus, however herd immunity does not protect the individual.
- Herd immunity implies group protection beyond that afforded by the protection
of immunized in dividuals.
So only choice is left (2) that is the answer because Herd immunity will be less
for infections that do not have a sub clinical phase.
Q.129 The best indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency
Disorders control programme is:
1 Prevalence of goiter among school children.
2 Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women.
3 Neonatal Hypothyroidism.
4 Iodine level in soil.
Answer is 3 K PARK
PSM 17th ed/440
Iodine monitoring
Countries implementing control programmes require a network of laboratories for
iodine monitoring and surveillance. These laboratories are essential for a)
iodine excretion determination b) determination of iodine in water, soil and
food as part of epidemiological studies, and c) determination of iodine in salt
for quality control.
Neonatal hypothyroidism is a sensitive pointer to environmental iodine
deficiency and can thus be an effective indicator for monitoring the impact of a
programme.
Q.130 What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human
anatomical wastes such as body parts?
1 Yellow.
2 Black.
3 Red.
4 Blue.
Answer is 1
K
PARK PSM 17th ed/567
Schedule I see table 14.1
Schedule II see table 14.2
Q.131 WHO defines adolescent age between:
1 10-19 years of age
2 10-14 years of age
3 10-25 years of age
4 9-14 years of age
Answer is 1 K. Park P.S.M 17th ed/99
O. P. Ghai essential of pediatric
WHO EPI Schedule -
- The adolescent age group 10-19 year represents an important additional target
group for immunization.
Q.132 In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain
disease. The results of as new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows.
|
Test result |
Disease |
|
|
Present |
Absent |
|
|
+ |
180 |
400 |
|
- |
20 |
400 |
1. 0.20.
2. 2.
3. 18.
4. 20.
Answer is 4
- Population is 1000.
- Total no. Have diseased. Person ® 180 + 20 =200
- So prevalence is 200 per 1000 of population
But % prevalence is 200 x 100
1000
= 20%
Q.133 The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
1 Phosphatase test.
2 Standard plate count.
3 Coliform count.
4 Methylene blue reduction test.
Answer is 4 K PARK PSM 17th ed/450
Tests of pasteurized milk are –
1) Phosphatase test
2) Standard plate count
3) Coliform count
Most of countries in the west enforce a limit of 30000 bacterial count per ml of pasteurized milk. The standard in most countries is that Coliforms be absent in 1 ml of milk. Presence of
Coliform in pasteurized milk is an indication either of improper pasteurization or post
pasteurization contamination.
Q.134 What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm:
1 27.
2 30.
3 33.
4 36.
Answer is 2 K PARK PSM 17th ed/229
(1) Body mass index (Quetelet’s index) = Weight (kg)/Height (m)
89/1.72 x 1.72 =30
(2) Broca index = Height (cm) minus 100
For example, if a person’s height is 160 cm.
his ideal weight is (160-100) = 60 kg
The body mass index (BMI) and the Broca index are widely used.
Skinfold thickness, it is a rapid and “non-invasive” method for assessing body fat. Several varieties of calipers (e.g. Harpenden skin calipers) are available for the purpose. The measurement may be taken at all the four sites - mid-triceps, biceps, subscapular and suprailiac regions. The sum of the measurements should be less than 40 mm in boys and 50 mm in girls.
Q.135 The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:
1 Bleeding.
2 Pain.
3 Pelvic infection.
4 Ectopic pregnancy.
Answer is 1 K PARK PSM 17th ed/342
SIDE-EFFECTS AND COMPLICATIONS
1. BleedingThe commonest complaint of women fitted with an IUD (inert or medicated) is increased vaginal bleeding.
• Pain is second major side effect, leading to IUD removal. It is most common side effect which increases the removal rate.
Other complications -
1) PID 2) ectopic pregnancy 3) uterine perforation.
• The pain due to IUCD is usually disappear by the third month.
• The risk of PID is highest in first few months after IUD insertion.
• Perforation d/t IUCD occur more frequently when insertions are performed between 48 hr and 6 weeks post partum.
• IUCD is post coital contraceptive of choice.
• Highest risk of ectopic pregnancy seen with progestasert.
Q.136 For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except:
1 Give Immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
2 Give ARV.
3 Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
4 Immediately wash wound with soap and water.
Answer is 3 K PARK PSM 17th ed/210
Combined administration of a single dose of antirabies serum with a course of vaccine, together with local treatment of the wound is the best specific prophylactic treatment after exposure of man to rabies.
Purpose of local treatment is to remove as much virus as possible from the site of inoculation before it can be absorbed on nerve endings. Local treatment of wounds is of maximal value when
applied immediately after exposure (within minutes if possible) but it should not be neglected if several hours or days have elapsed.
Immediate flushing and washing the wound preferably under a running tap, for atleast 5 minutes is of paramount importance in the prevention of human rabies.
Residual virus remains in the wound (s), after cleansing, should be inactivated by irrigation with virucidal agents - either alcohol (400-700 ml/litre), tincture or 0.01% aqueous solution of iodine or povidone iodine. Quaternary ammonium compounds (e.g. savlon, cetavlon) are no longer recommended (3,7). Cauterization with carbolic acid or nitric acid is no longer recommended as it leaves very bad scars.
Bite wounds should not be immediately sutured to prevent additional trauma which may help spread the virus in to deeper tissues. If suturing is necessary, it should be done 24-48 hours later.
Q.137 A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:
1 Very severe disease.
2 Severe Pneumonia.
3 Pneumonia.
4 No Pneumonia.
Answer is 3
K PARK PSM 17th ed/137
Management of pneumonia in a child aged 2 months upto 5 years
|
SIGNS |
Chest indrawing (if also recurrent wheezing, go directly to treat wheezing |
No chest indrawing but fast breathing |
No chest indrawing Nofastbreathing (Less than 50 per minute if child 2 months upto 5 years). |
|
CLASSIFY AS |
SEVERE PNEUMONIA |
PNEUMONIA |
NO PNEUMONIA COUGH OR COLD |
Q.138 The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India?
1 1998
2 2000.
3 2001.
4 2003.
Answer is 2
Information Technology Act, 2000(NO. 21 OF 2000) (9TH OF JUNE, 2000)
Q.139 Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in;
1 1996.
2 1993.
3 1998.
4 1994.
Answer is 4
WWW. Indianlawinfo.com
Q.140 Which one of the following is not source of manager’s power.
1 Reward.
2 Coercive
3 Legitimate.
4 Efferent.
Answer is 4
Q.141 The standard normal distribution:
1 Is skewed to the left.
2 Has mean=1.0
3 Has standard deviation=0.0
4 Has variance=1.0.
Answer is 3
K PARK PSM 17th ed/613
- Standard normal curve is smooth, bell shaped, perfectly symmetrical curve, based on a infinitely large number of serration.
- The total area of the curve is 1; its mean is zero; and its standard deviation is 1.
- The mean, median and mode all coincide according to High yield statistics.
Variance = (S.D.)2
So if S.D. is 1 than variance will also be 1
Thus the Answer is 4.
Q.142 The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 l/min.
1 About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 l/min.
2 The girls have healthy lungs.
3 About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 l/min.
4 All the PEFR must be less than 340 l/min.
Answer is 1
K PARK PSM 17th ed/613
- Area between one S.O on either side of mean (x- ? 16) will include approximately 68% of the value in the distribution.
- 2 S.D. = 95% of the value
- 3 S.D. - 99.7% of the value
In the question -
(x-) - Mean 300 L/min
S.D. = 20 L/min
1. S.D. = 20
2. SD. = 40
So 68% of the group will be in the range of (x- ? 20).
300?20 - 280 to 320 about 95% of the girls will have PEFR in between (x ? 40) - 300 ? 40= 260 to 340 L/min
So 5% of girls will have PEFR below either 260 L/min or above 340 L/min (2.5% below 260 and 2.5% above 340)
- Choice 2 & 4 are totally wrong.
Q.143 The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so:
1 Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B).
2 Prob (A and B) = Prob (A), Prob (B).
3 Prob (A) = Prob (B).
4 Prob (A + Prob (B) = 1.
Answer is
Q.144 Total Cholesterol level = a+b (calorie intake) + c (physical activity) +d (body mass index); is an example of:
1 Simple linear regression.
2 Simple curvilinear regression
3 Multiple linear regression.
4 Multiple logistic regression.
Answer is
Q.145The Hb level in healthy women has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl.
1 9.0.
2 10.0.
3 2.0.
4 1.0.
Answer is 2
K PARK PSM 17th ed/613
Z = (X - X)
s{
X - Single value of a object = 15 g/dl
X- = Mean = 13.5 g/dl
s{ = Standard deviation = 1.5 g/dL
So Z =15 - 13.5 /1.5 =1.5/ 1.5 = 1
Answer - is (4).
Q.146 The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:
1 Sensitivity.
2 Specificity.
3 Positive predictivity.
4 Negative predictivity.
Answer is 4
Q.147 Infant mortality does not include:
1 Early neonatal mortality.
2 Perinatal mortality.
3 Post neonatal mortality
4 Late neonatal mortality.
Answer is 2
K PARK PSM 17th ed/392
Number of deaths of children
Less than 1 year of age in a year
IMR = -------------------- ------------x 100
Number of live births in the same year
PERINATAL MORTALITY RATE
As currently defined, the term “perinatal mortality” includes both late foetal deaths
(stillbirths) and early neonatal deaths. The Eighth Revision of the International Classification of Diseases (ICD) defined the “perinatal period” as lasting from the 28th week of gestation to the seventh day after birth. The Ninth Revision (1975) of ICD added that:
well established vital records of stillbirths is as follows:
Late foetal deaths (28 weeks gestation and more)
+ early neonatal deaths (first week) in one year
PMR =---------------------------------------------------x 1000
Live births in the same year
For international comparisons, “Late foetal and early neonatal deaths weighing over 1000g at birth expressed as a ratio per 1000 live births weighing over 1000g at birth”. It is calculated as:
Late foetal and early neonatal
deaths weighing over 1000g at birth
Perinatal
mortality =-----------------------------------------x 1000
rate Total live births weighing over 1000g
at birth.
Q.148 A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r = 0.90, p=0.01)
between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending
his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation
coefficient observed?
1 Since there is a high correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other.
2 A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum
cholesterol.
3 A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum
cholesterol.
4 About 80% of the variation in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice a versa
Q.149 All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:
1 Selenium sulphide.
2 Ketoconazole.
3 Griseofulvin.
4 Clotrimazole.
Answer is 3
Harrison’s Internal Medicine 15th Ed
TREAETMENT
Solutions containing sulfur, salicylic acid, or selenium sulfide will clear the infection if
used daily for a week and then intermittently thereafter. Treatment with a single 400-mg dose of ketaconazole (other azoles) is also effective. Ketoconazole is used for systemic treatment and
Selinium miconazole and clotrimazole for local application.
Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for dermatophyte infections requiring systemic therapy. BUT IT IS NOT EFFECTIVE IN TINEA VERSICOLOR TINEA VERSICOLOR
Caused by a non-dermatophyte dimorphic fungus
A normal inhabitant of the skin
Yeast form Pityrosporum orbiculare does not leads the disease
Hyphal form causes characteristic lesions of disease
The typical lesions consist of oval scaly macules, papules, and patches concentrated on the chest, shoulders, and back but only rarely on the face or distal extremities.
On dark skin, they often appear as hypo pigmented areas,
Hypo pigmentation is d/t azelic acid
Disease rare in children.
A KOH preparation from scaling lesions will demonstrate a confluence of short hyphae and round spores (so-called spaghetti and meatballs).
- Pityriasis Alba can be differentiated by more common involvement of face and children.
- Indeterminate leprosy can be differentiated by absence of scaling, presence of
anaesthesia (if present) and epidural atrophy and patient belonging to high leprosy prevalence state.
Q.150 A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins.
Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:
1 Erythema annulare centrifugum.
2 Granuloma annulare.
3 Annular lichen planus.
4 Tinea cruris.
Answer is 4
Harrison’s Internal Medicine 15th Ed
When Tinea is wrongly treated with steroid, lesions get more profuse and itching is less. It is called Tinea incognito. While corticosteroid is used in treatment of all three condition except tinea.
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