(Model Test Paper) PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (ENT)

Test Paper :  PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (ENT)

Question 1: A male aged 60 years has foul breath, he regurgitates food that is eaten 3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is


    1. Zenker's diverticulum
    2. Meckel's diverticulum
    3. Scleroderma
    4. Achalasia cardia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 2: Prime modality of treatment of Naso Pharyngeal Carcinoma is

    1. Radiotherapy
    2. Surgery
    3. Chemotherapy
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 3: A middle aged male comes to the outer patient department (OPD) with the only complaint of hoarseness of voice for the past 2 years. he has been a chronic smoker for 30 years. On examination, a reddish area of mucosal irregularity overlying a portion both cords was seen. Management would include all except

    1. Cessation of smoking
    2. Bilateral cordectomy
    3. Microlaryngeal surgery for biopsy
    4. Regular follow-up
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 4: The most common site of carcinoma of tongue is

    1. Posterior one -third
    2. Dorsum of anterior two-third
    3. Ventral surface of anterior two-third
    4. Lateral border of anterior two-third
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 5: Peritonsillar abscess can extend posteriorly into

    1. Anterior triangle of neck
    2. Parapharyngeal space
    3. Posterior triangle on neck
    4. Submaxillary space
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 6: A 5 year old boy has been diagnosed to have posterior superior retraction pocket cholesteatoma. All would constitute part of the management, except

    1. Audiometry
    2. Mastoid exploration
    3. Tympanoplasty
    4. Myringoplasty
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 7: Carharts notch in audiogram is deepest frequency of

    1. 0.5 KHz
    2. 2 KHz
    3. 4 KHz
    4. 8 KHz
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 8: The most common diagnosis in a young boy with history of profuse nasal bleeding is

    1. Juvenile Naso pharyngeal angiofibroma
    2. Nasal polyp
    3. Deviated nasal septum
    4. Cirrhosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 9: All of the following cause a grey-white membrane in the throat EXCEPT

    1. Streptococcal tonsillitis
    2. Diphtheria
    3. Ludwig's angina
    4. Adenoviral pharyngitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 10: The most common cause of ASOM in children is

    1. Streptococcus pneumonia
    2. Hemophilus influenza
    3. E. coli
    4. Moraxella
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 11: Causes of posterior soft tissue nasopharyngeal mass include all EXCEPT

    1. Plasmacytoma
    2. Choanal atresia
    3. Thornwaldt’s Cyst
    4. Aneurysm of the carotid artery
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 12: Thornwaldt disease in inflammation of

    1. Pharyngeal bursa
    2. Subhyoid bursa
    3. Crypta Magna
    4. Piriform fossa
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 13: Submandibular space infection is known as

    1. Ludwig's angina
    2. Vincent's angina
    3. Parapharyngeal abscess
    4. None
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 14: Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in

    1. Achalasia acardia
    2. Barrett's oesophagus
    3. Plummer Vinson syndrome
    4. Chronic smoking
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 15: Conductive deafness is caused by all except

    1. Otitis media with effusion
    2. Tumours of the external canal
    3. Perforated ear drum
    4. Viral infection like mumps
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 16: Indications for tracheostomy are all EXCEPT

    1. Acute epiglottitis
    2. Maxillofacial trauma
    3. Laryngeal malignancy
    4. Extensive consolidation of lung
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 17: Post cricoid malignancy is due to

    1. Alcohol
    2. Smoking
    3. Plummer vinson syndrome
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 18: Which of the following is not the site for PARAGANGLIOMA

    1. Carotid bifurcation
    2. Jugular foramen
    3. Promontory in middle ear
    4. Geniculate ganglion
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 19: After a long-standing tracheostomy patient developed almost complete stenosis of trachea, treatment is

    1. Tracheal dilation
    2. Laser with stent
    3. Surgery
    4. Removal of stenosed part with anastomosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 20: Chronic pharyngeal abcess is due to

    1. Caries in spine
    2. Tuberculosis of lungs
    3. Cancer of larynx
    4. Chronic streptococcal infection
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 21: Tensor of the Vocal cord is

    1. Cricothyroid
    2. Posterior Crico arytenoids
    3. Lateral crico arytenoids
    4. Thyro arytenoids
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 22: Which one of the following statements is not true about epiglottitis

    1. The most frequent causative agent is pneumococcus
    2. Presents with high fever and stridor
    3. Stridor diminishes with fatigue
    4. Examination of throat may cause sudden death
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 23: Left sided vocal cord palsy is commonly due to

    1. Left hilar bronchial carcinoma
    2. Mitral Stenosis
    3. Thyroid Malignancy
    4. Thyroid Surgey
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 24: Bano Begum presented with bleeding from ear, pain, tinnitus and increasing deafness. Examination revealed red swelling/mass behind the intact tympanic membrane that blanches on pressure with pneumatic speculum. Treatments for her include all EXCEPT:

    1. Preoperative embolisation
    2. Radiotherapy
    3. Surgery
    4. Interferons
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 25: False positive fistula test is seen in

    1. Perilymph fistula
    2. Malignant sclerosis
    3. Congenital syphilis
    4. Cholesteatoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 26: Access to airway is gained during emergency by

    1. Endotracheal tube
    2. Emergency Tracheostomy
    3. Crico thyroidotomy
    4. All of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 27: Investigation of choice for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is

    1. Helical CT
    2. Angiography
    3. MRI
    4. CECT
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 28: The most common tumor of the salivary gland is

    1. Mucoepidermoid tumor
    2. Pleomorphic adenoma
    3. Acinic cell tumor
    4. Warthin’s tumor
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 29: Dangerous area of Nose is

    1. Little’s area
    2. Woodruff’s area
    3. Olfactory area
    4. Posterior wall
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 30: Third molar caries with extension of the lesion towards tonsillar fossa and shift of tonsil reveals which of the following complication

    1. Parapharyngeal abscess
    2. Retropharyngeal abscess
    3. Tonsillar abscess
    4. Dental abscess
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 31: The opening in case of Dacrocysto rhinostomy is made in

    1. Superior Meatus
    2. Middle Meatus
    3. Inferior Meatus
    4. Sphenoidal sinus
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 32: A tracheostomised patient, with portex tracheostomy tube, in the ward, developed sudden complete blockage of the tube. Which of the following is best next step in the management?

    1. Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube
    2. Suction of tube with sodium bicarbonate
    3. Suction of tube with saline
    4. Jet ventilation
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 33: Palatal myoclonus is seen in

    1. Epilepsy
    2. Multiple sclerosis
    3. Cerebellar infarction
    4. Guillain Barre syndrome
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 34: Hyperkeratosis of palm and sole is seen in

    1. Carcinoma colon
    2. Hepatoma
    3. Adenocarcinoma lung
    4. CA oesophagus
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 35: Odynophagia is

    1. Pain during swallowing
    2. Difficulty in swallowing
    3. Bad odour from mouth
    4. Psychiatric disease
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 36: Organ of corti is situated in

    1. Basilar membrane
    2. Utricle
    3. Saccule
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 37: The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis pending culture sensitivity report is

    1. Erythromycin
    2. Rolitetracycline
    3. Doxycycline
    4. Ampicillin
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 38: Vocal cord paralysis is due to involvement of which of the following nerves

    1. External laryngeal
    2. Internal laryngeal
    3. Recurrent laryngeal
    4. Superior laryngeal
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 39: A chronic smoker with history of hoarseness was found on examination to have keratosis of the larynx. All the following are possible treatment modalities except

    1. Laser
    2. Radiotherapy
    3. Stripping of the vocal cord
    4. Partial laryngectomy
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 40: Killiance dehiscence is seen in

    1. Oropharynx
    2. Nasopharynx
    3. Cricopharynx
    4. Vocal cords
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 41: An 18 year old boy presents with epistaxis and unilateral nasal mass. The most likely diagonosis is

    1. Rhinoscleroma
    2. Angiofibroma
    3. Rhinosporidiosis
    4. Antrochoanal polyp
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 42: An eight month old infant had stridor with respiratory difficulty which worsened on crying. On examination, it was found to have a subglottic reddish mass. All the following can be used in the management except

    1. Tracheostomy
    2. Laser vaporization
    3. Corticosteroid
    4. Radiotherapy
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 43: Main problem associated with carotid body tumor operation is

    1. The tumor blends with bifurcation of carotid artery
    2. The tumor blends with jugular vein
    3. Recurrence
    4. Vaso vagal Shock
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 44: Lalloo, a 55 year old chronic smoker, presents with complaints of hoarseness of voice. On examination there is a single enlarged painless lymphnode in the left supraclavicular area. What is the next step to be done

    1. Excision biopsy of the node
    2. Laryngoscopy and Chest X ray
    3. CT scan
    4. Sputum for AFB
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 45: Myosis is

    1. Maggots seen is nose
    2. Maggots in the anus
    3. Inflammatory disease of nose
    4. Necrotic inflammation with maggots in ear
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 46: Swelling between tonsillar area and superior constrictor muscle is know as

    1. Quinsy
    2. Dental abscess
    3. Parapharyngeal abscess
    4. Retropharyngeal abscess
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 47: The treatment of choice of a glottic cancer with stage T1N0M0 is

    1. Brachytherapy
    2. External beam radiotherapy
    3. Laryngectomy
    4. Chemotherapy
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 48: The presenting symptoms in majority cases of Acoustic Neuroma is

    1. Hearing Loss
    2. Vertigo
    3. Signs of Space occupying lesions
    4. Pain
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 49: The main differential diagnosis is second branchial cleft cyst include all EXCEPT

    1. Thyroglossal duct cyst
    2. Cystic hygroma
    3. Laryngocele
    4. Ranula
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 50: Not true regarding pterygopalatine fossa

    1. Inferomedial to the foramen rotundum lies the Vidian (Pterygoid) canal, which connects the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa
    2. Medially, the pterygopalatine fossa communicates through the pterygomaxillary fissure with the infratemporal fossa
    3. It communicates with the middle cranial cavity through the foramen rotundum and pterygoid canal.
    4. It contains the sphenopalatine ganglion and the third segment of the maxillary artery.
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 51: Peritonsillar abscess is also known as

    1. Retropharyngeal abscess
    2. Tonsillar abscess
    3. Quinsy
    4. Thornwaldt's abscess
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 52: Tullio phenomenon is

    1. Better hearing in Noisy surroundings
    2. Increased sensitivity
    3. Impedance
    4. Vertigo in noisy surroundings
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 53: Collar stud abscess is seen in

    1. Pyogenic cervical abscess
    2. Peritonsillar abscess
    3. Retropharyngeal abscess
    4. TB lymphadenitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 54: Which of the following is the most beneficial technique of using chemotherapy with a course of radiotherapy in head and neck malignancies

    1. Neo adjuvant chemotherapy
    2. Adjuvant chemotherapy
    3. Concurrent chemotherapy
    4. Alternating chemotherapy and radiotherapy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 55: Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions

    1. Carcinoma esophagus
    2. Scleroderma
    3. Achalasia cardia
    4. Diffuse esophageal spasm
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 56: Reaction time for tymphanic reflex is

    1. 20 to 30 ms
    2. 30 to 40 ms
    3. 40 to 160 ms
    4. 600 to 800 ms
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 57: 'Cork-screw' esophagus is seen in

    1. Vigorous achalasia cardia
    2. Scleroderma
    3. Diffuse esophageal spasm
    4. Carcinoma esophagus
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 58: Type I Thyroplasty is for

    1. Vocal cord medialization
    2. Vocal cord laterlization
    3. Vocal Cord shortening
    4. Vocal cord lengthening
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 59: Normal ear drums are seen in ----- % cases of otoscelerosis

    1. 90
    2. 75
    3. 70
    4. 78
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 60: White oral lesions are seen in EXCEPT

    1. Leukoplakia
    2. Keratosis
    3. Addison's disease
    4. Candidiasis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 61: Why vocal cord appears pale ?

    1. Vocal cord is muscle, lack of blood vessels network
    2. Absence of mucosa, no blood vessels
    3. Absence of sub mucosa, no blood vessels
    4. Absence of mucosa with blood vessels
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 62: Noise level which can be tolerated by ears is

    1. 85 dB
    2. 70 dB
    3. 120 dB
    4. 100 dB
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 63: What is the correct sequence of the following while resuscitating an infant with Foreign Body Airway Obstruction? 1. Chest thrust 2. Tongue-jaw lift 3. Back blows Select the correct sequence form the codes given below:

    1. 1,3,2
    2. 3,2,1
    3. 3,1,2
    4. 2,1,3
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 64: Columella effect is seen in

    1. Tympanoplasty
    2. Septoplasty
    3. Tracheostomy
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 65: Most common complication of Tracheostomy is

    1. Stenosis
    2. Infection
    3. Pneumonia
    4. Respiratory failure
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 66: Weber test is done by

    1. Placing the tuning fork on the vertex and examined after partial occlusion of the auditory canal
    2. Placing the tuning fork on the forehead and by assessing the side of better hearing
    3. Placing the tuning fork on the mastoid and assessing the side of better hearing
    4. Placing the tuning fork on the mastoid and examined after partial occlusion of the auditory canal
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 67: A 70 year old man presents with complaints of tinnitus. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis

    1. Labrynthitis
    2. Acoustic trauma
    3. ASOM
    4. Acoustic neuroma
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 68: Openings of the tube of bronchoscope are known as

    1. Holes
    2. Apertures
    3. Vents
    4. Any of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 69: The most common malignancy of the oropharynx

    1. Tonsil
    2. Soft palate
    3. Tongue base
    4. Valleculae
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 70: Which of the following structure is seen in Oro Pharynx

    1. Pharyngotympanic tube
    2. Fossa of Rosenmuller
    3. Palatine Tonsil
    4. Piriform Fossa
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 71: A 31 year old female patient complaints of bilateral impairment of hearing for the past 5 years. On examination, tympanic membrance is normal and aduiogram shows a bilateral conductive deafness. Impedance audiometry. Shows as type of curve and acoustic reflexes are absent. All constitute part of treatment, except

    1. Hearing aid
    2. Stapedectomy
    3. Sodium Fluoride
    4. Gentamicin
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 72: Acoustic dip in audiogram in noise induced hearing loss is at

    1. 4 KHz
    2. 3 KHz
    3. 2 KHz
    4. 1 KHz
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 73: Presbyacusis is

    1. Age associated vision loss
    2. Age associated hearing loss
    3. Both
    4. None
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 74: Scanty, foul smelling, painless discharge from the ear is a characteristic feature of which of the following lesions

    1. Acute otitis media
    2. Otitis externa
    3. Central perforation
    4. Cholesteatoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 75: Intermaxillary suture are sometimes raised forming a longitudinal midline ridge known as

    1. Torus auditory
    2. Torus mandibularis
    3. Torus palatine
    4. Torus maxillaris
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 76: Maxillary Sinus opens in

    1. Superior Meatus
    2. Inferior meatus
    3. Infundibulum
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 77: Fibrous layer is absent in

    1. Pars tensa
    2. Pars flaccida
    3. Umbo
    4. Annulus
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 78: Rhinitis sicca is due to drying of

    1. Anterior wall of Nose
    2. Postetior Wall of nose
    3. Septum
    4. Roof of Nose
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 79: To do myringotomy, the incision is put in the posterior inferior region. This is the preferred region for all the following reasons except

    1. It is easily accessible
    2. Damage to chorda tympani is avoided
    3. Damage to ossicular chain does not occur
    4. It is the least vascular region
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 80: A false positive fistula test is seen in all the following except

    1. Hypermobile ossicular chain
    2. Labyrinthine fistula
    3. Dead ear
    4. Post fenestration
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 81: Congenital stridor is caused by

    1. Laryngomalacia
    2. Laryngeal stenosis
    3. Ca Larynx
    4. Foreign body
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.

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