(Model Test Paper) PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Microbiology)

Test Paper :  PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Microbiology)

Question 1: The most common cause of osteomyelitis is


    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Salmonella typhi
    3. Streptococcus pyogens
    4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 2: .Staphylococcus aureus differs from Staphylococcus epidermidis by

    1. Is coagulase positive
    2. Forms white colonies
    3. A common cause of UTI
    4. Causes endocarditis in drug addicts
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 3: The membrane attack complex consists of

    1. Colicins
    2. C3b, 2a
    3. C5b,6,7,8,9
    4. Properdin
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 4: Long lasting immunity in hepatitis infection is due to

    1. IgA
    2. IgM
    3. IgE
    4. IgG
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 5: Erysepelas is caused by

    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Pseudomonas
    3. Streptococcus pyogens
    4. Pneumococcus
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 6: In Hepatitis B infection, window period is characterized by

    1. Anti HBS antibody
    2. HBS antigen
    3. Anti HBE
    4. HBE
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 7: All of the following statements about NK cells are true. except

    1. They are derived from large granular cells
    2. They comprise about 5% of human peripheral lymphoid cells
    3. They are MHC restricted cytotoxic cells
    4. They express lgG Fc receptors
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 8: Satellitism is seen in culture of

    1. Hemophilus
    2. Streptococcus
    3. Klebsiella
    4. Proteus
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 9: Following is true about C-reactive protein

    1. Detected by precipitation with carbohydrate
    2. Raised in acute pneumococcal infection
    3. It is an antibody
    4. Detected by agglutination test
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 10: Antigenic drift in influenza virus infections is due to

    1. Small mutation in neuraminidase and hemaglutimin
    2. Large mutations in hemaglutimin only
    3. Step mutations in viral genome
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 11: The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a

    1. Transduction
    2. Translation
    3. Lysogeny
    4. Conjugation
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 12: Epstein Barr virus causes all the following except

    1. Infectious mononucleosis
    2. Measles
    3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
    4. Non Hodgkins lymphoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 13: All of the following infections are often associated with acute intravascular hemolysis except

    1. Clostridium tetani.
    2. Bartonella bacilliformis
    3. Plasmodium falciparum
    4. Babesia microti
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 14: A beta hemolytic bacteria resistant to vancomycin, gentamycin and ampicillin. It shows growth in 6.5% NaCl and bile is likely to be

    1. strep agalactiae
    2. strep pneumococcus
    3. enterococcus
    4. strep bovis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 15: Fimbriae are demonstrated by

    1. Culture
    2. Gram stain
    3. Biochemical reaction
    4. Haemagglutination test
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 16: Which of the following is common to NK cells and Cytotoxic T cells

    1. Antibody production
    2. Antiviral action
    3. Antibody is required for cytotoxicity
    4. HLA class II is involved
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 17: Visceral larva migrans is caused by

    1. Toxocara canis
    2. Toxoplasma
    3. Toxocora catis
    4. Ascariasis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 18: Fungi affecting reticuloendothelial cells are

    1. Cryptcoccus
    2. Histoplasmosis
    3. Sporothrix
    4. Cryptosporidium
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 19: Fibroblast in tissue culture form interferon of which type

    1. Alpha
    2. Beta
    3. Gamma
    4. All of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 20: In a patient, corneal scraping reveals narrow angled septate hyphae. Which of the following is the likely etiologic agent

    1. Mucor
    2. Aspergillus
    3. Histoplasma
    4. Candida
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 21: Retroviruses contain

    1. DNA polymerase
    2. Reverse transcriptase
    3. Segmented DNA
    4. ds DNA
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 22: Which of the following is true about Lymphokines

    1. Alpha-interferon activates macrophages
    2. Colony stimulating factors (CSF) stimulate bacterial growth
    3. All CD4+ T-cells do not produce the same Lymphokines
    4. The action of lymphokines is not antigen specific
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 23: The following are true for Bordetella perussis except

    1. It is a strict human pathogen
    2. It can be cultured from the patient during catarrhal stage
    3. It leads to invasion of the respiratory mucosa
    4. Infection can be prevented by a acellular vaccine
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 24: The pathogenesis of which one of the following infections does NOT occur through an exotoxin

    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Escherichia coli
    3. Clostridum botulinum
    4. Streptococcus pyogenes
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 25: Gasgangrene is due to the infection of

    1. E.coli
    2. Clostridium perfringens
    3. Shigella
    4. salmonella
    5. all of the above
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 26: % VDRL POSTIVITY IN SECONDARY SYPHILIS

    1. 100%
    2. 60%
    3. 70%
    4. 80%
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 27: Memory T cells can be identified by using the following marker

    1. CD45 RA
    2. CD45RO
    3. CD45RC
    4. CD45 RB
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 28: In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically caused by

    1. Cytomegalovirus
    2. Toxoplasma gondii
    3. Cryptococcus neoformans
    4. Histoplasma capsulatum
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 29: C-reactive protein (CRP) is

    1. Produced by Pneumococcus
    2. Marker of septicemia
    3. Raised in acute inflammation
    4. Low in rheumatoid arthritis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 30: Germ tube test is diagnosis for

    1. Candida albicans
    2. Cryptococcus neoformans
    3. Histoplasma capsulatum
    4. Coccidiodomycosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 31: HIV virus is a

    1. Single stranded DNA
    2. Single stranded RNA
    3. Double stranded RNA
    4. Double stranded DNA
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 32: The earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesized by the fetus is

    1. IgA
    2. IgM
    3. IgD
    4. IgG
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 33: All the following are true about acute infection except

    1. Specific IgM antibody occurs in acute infection
    2. Specific IgM indicates rubella immune status
    3. Immunofluorescence indicates influenza infection
    4. ELISA is useful in Hepatitis B infection
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 34: Which of the following statements is true about Bacteroides

    1. It is a gram positive bacilli
    2. It is strictly aerobic
    3. It can cause peritonitis
    4. Presence in stools culture indicates need for treatment
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 35: Which of the following is transmitted by Rat urine

    1. Leptospira
    2. Listeria
    3. Legionella
    4. Mycoplasma
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 36: Recommended vaccines for rabies

    1. DPT
    2. MMR
    3. BCG
    4. HCDV
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 37: Plastic Syringes are sterilized by

    1. Gamma rays
    2. Hot air oven
    3. Autoclave
    4. Washing with phenol
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 38: In immunocompromised person, fungal viral, protozoal infection are due to deficiency of

    1. T lymphocytes
    2. B lymphocytes
    3. Macrophages
    4. Neutrophils
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 39: A patient, Gopi, had lepromatous leprosy. Which of the following is true regarding globi in leprosy

    1. Consists of lipid laden macrophages
    2. Consists of macrophages filled with bacteria
    3. Consists of neutrophils filled with bacteria
    4. Degenerated neural tissue
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 40: Dark ground microscopy is used for detection of

    1. Spirochete
    2. Myco-Tuberculosis
    3. Myco-Leprae
    4. Mycoplasma
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 41: Which on of the following solutions is used to disinfect flexible endoscopes

    1. 10 % chlorhexidine
    2. Absolute alcohol
    3. 2 % Glutaraldehyde
    4. 5 % Paracetic acid
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 42: Obligate anaerobes cannot withstand oxygen because of absence of

    1. Superoxide dismutase
    2. Catalase
    3. Peroxidase
    4. Cytochrome oxidase
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 43: Which of the following are not a feature of the bacterial cell wall

    1. Peptidoglycan
    2. Lipopolysaccharide
    3. Pilus protein
    4. Teichoic acid
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 44: Flurescent microscopy is used to diagnose

    1. Mycobacterium tubeculosis
    2. Staphylococcus aureus
    3. Streptococcus capsulatum
    4. Klebsilla aerogenes
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 45: Woolsorter disease is

    1. Pneumonic form of anthrax
    2. Pneumonic plague
    3. Hydatid disease of lungs
    4. A form of psittacoccis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 46: CAUSATIVE ORGANISM OF SOFT CHANCRE

    1. H.DUCREYI
    2. SYPHILIS
    3. NEISSERIA
    4. DONOVANOSIS
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 47: pH of sabouraud’s dextrose agar is adjusted to

    1. 1-2
    2. 4-6
    3. 6-8
    4. 8-10
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 48: Heat stable enterotoxin causing food poisoning is caused by all the following except

    1. Bacillus cereus
    2. Yersinia enterocolitica
    3. Staphylococcus aureus
    4. Clostridium perfringens
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 49: Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as:

    1. Iridocylitis.
    2. Polyarteritis nodosa
    3. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
    4. Giant cell arteritis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 50: Which of the following is true about autoclaving

    1. It kills by denaturation of proteins
    2. Presence of air is good for the killing of organisms
    3. It is best for oils and jellys
    4. Kills all organisms except HIV
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 51: A labourer involved with repair-work of sewers was admitted with fever, jaundice and renal failure. The most appropriate test to diagnose the infection in this patient is

    1. Weil Felix test
    2. Paul Bunnel test
    3. Microscopic agglutination test
    4. Micro immunofluorescence test
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 52: wchich is wrong about Shigella

    1. nonmotile
    2. capsulated
    3. nonsporing
    4. Fimbriae may present
    5. all of the above
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 53: Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as

    1. Transduction
    2. Transformation
    3. Transcription
    4. Integration
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 54: PAINLESS GENITAL ULCERS ARE SEEN IN

    1. HERPES GENITALIS
    2. LYMPHOGRANULOMA VEVNEREUM
    3. GONORRHOEA
    4. SYPHILIS
    5. CHANCRE
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 55: Most of the drug resistance occurs due to

    1. Transduction
    2. Translation
    3. Mutation
    4. Conjugation
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 56: The discovery of gene transformation came from study of one of the following bacteria

    1. Bacillus subtilis
    2. Streptococcus pyogenes
    3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    4. E. coli
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 57: Cutting instruments like knives and scissors should be sterilized by

    1. Boiling in water
    2. Heating
    3. Detergents
    4. Carbolic
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 58: Which of the following is not a Staphylococcus species

    1. Aureus
    2. Albicans
    3. Fragilis
    4. Epidermidis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 59: Which of the following is caused by E.coli infection

    1. Urinary tract infection
    2. Diarrhea
    3. Pyogenic infection
    4. Septicemia
    5. all of the above
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 60: Ring worm may be detected by
Ring worm may be detected by

    1. infrared rays
    2. X-rays
    3. Ultraviolet rays
    4. Cathode rays
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 61: The most primitive mode of gene transfer occurs by

    1. Transduction
    2. Translation
    3. Cell fusion
    4. Conjugation
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 62: Which of the following statements is true about rabies virus

    1. It is a double stranded RNA virus
    2. Contains a DNA dependant RNA polymerase
    3. RNA has a negative polarity
    4. Affects motor neurons
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 63: Pigment producing colonies are seen in

    1. Pseudomonas
    2. Atypical mycobacteria
    3. Serratia marcescens
    4. All of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 64: Skin test for ecchinococcus is

    1. Casoni test
    2. Frei's test
    3. Disk test
    4. Kveim test
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 65: Which of the following statements is true about endemic typhus

    1. Is caused by R. rickettsii
    2. Is transmitted by the bite of fleas
    3. Has no mammalian reservoir
    4. Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 66: Bacteria acquire characteristics by all of the following except

    1. Through plasmids
    2. Incorporating part of host DNA
    3. Through bacteriophages
    4. Through conjugation
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 67: Drug used to treat ascariasis are all except.

    1. Albendazole
    2. Piperazine
    3. Pyrantel pamoate
    4. Ivermectin
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 68: Mossy foot means

    1. Zygomycoccis
    2. Rhinosporidiasis
    3. Chromoblastomycosis
    4. Sporotrichosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 69: Most common cause of infective endocarditis

    1. Staphylococcus aureus
    2. Streptococcus viridians
    3. Streptococcus pyogens
    4. Staphylococcus albus
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 70: All the following are true about Listeria monocytogens except

    1. Transmitted by contaminated cheese
    2. Gram negative bacteria
    3. Causes abortion in pregnancy
    4. Causes meningitis in neonates
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 71: Which virus is most notorious for causing a chronic hepatitis evolving cirrhosis

    1. Hepatitis C virus
    2. Hepatitis B virus
    3. Hepatitis E virus
    4. Cytomegalovirus
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 72: Appendicitis like syndrome is caused by

    1. Brucella abortis
    2. Yersinia tuberculosis
    3. Pasturella multicoda
    4. Yersenia pestis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 73: All the following are transmitted by blood transfusion except

    1. Hepatitis G
    2. Cytomegalovirus
    3. Dengue
    4. Parvovirus B 19
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 74: A chest physician performs bronchoscopy in the procedure room of the out patient department. To make the instrument safe for use in the next patient waiting outside. The most appropriate method to disinfect the endoscope is by

    1. 70% alcohol for 5 min
    2. 2% gluteraldelyde for 20 min
    3. 2% formaldehyde for 10 min
    4. 1% sodium hypochlorite for 15 min
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 75: Sulfur granules in actinomycosis are composed of

    1. Organisms
    2. Neutrophils and lymphocytes
    3. Monocytes
    4. Eosinophils
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.

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