(Model Test Paper) PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Obstretics and Gynaecology)

Test Paper :  PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Obstretics and Gynaecology)

Question 1: At the end of the normal puerperium the uterine weight is


    1. 40 gm
    2. 60 gm
    3. 80 gm
    4. 100 gm
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 2: The cause of 'Postpartum blue' is

    1. Decreased estrogen
    2. Decreased progesterone
    3. Increased prolactin
    4. Decreased estrogen and progesterone
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 3: Which one of the following is not an indication for IVF-ET

    1. Tubal disease
    2. Severe endometriosis
    3. Impotence in the male
    4. Unexplained infertility
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 4: All occurs in abruptio placentae except

    1. Coagulation failure
    2. Renal failure
    3. Uterine inversion
    4. Intrauterine death
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 5: The severity of pelvic pain in endometriosis correlates best with

    1. Number of implants
    2. Depth of invasion
    3. Stage of disease
    4. Ca 125 levels
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 6: Elderly woman with recurrent swelling and pain in vulve is due to

    1. Hydradenitis
    2. Bartholin cyst
    3. Hematoma
    4. Sebaceous cyst
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 7: Caesarean section has to be done in which of the following conditions

    1. Previous LSCS for transverse lie
    2. Previous LSCS for ante partum haemorrhage
    3. Previous LSCS for myomectomy scar 2 years back
    4. Previous vesicovaginal repair
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 8: All are true regarding episiotomy except

    1. Increases the size of the birth canal
    2. Midline episiotomy causes less bleeding and heals early
    3. Involvement of rectum is classified as grade 3/ 4
    4. Mediolateral episiotomy is most preferred one
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 9: The most common site of ureteric injury during Wertheim's hysterectomy is

    1. At the level of infundibulopelvic ligament
    2. Where the uterine artery crosses the urter form above
    3. Where ureter traverses through the smuculature of the bladder
    4. In the ovarin fossa
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 10: In a patient with peivic inflammatory disease due to tuberculosis, all of the following statements are true except

    1. Mycobacterium can be grown from menstrual blood
    2. Associated with infertility
    3. Ectopic pregnancy is common
    4. Dysmenorrhea is a common presentation
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 11: Which is not ture rearding oral contraceptive pills

    1. Interact with Rifampicin
    2. Prevent benign breast disease
    3. Prevent PID
    4. Increase the severity of rheumatoid arthritis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 12: Ligation of anterior division of internal iliac artery stops intractable pelvic haemorrhage because of

    1. Lack of collateral circulation
    2. Shuting off of blood flow
    3. Decrease in arterial pulse pressure
    4. Increased capillary clotting
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 13: A 47-year-old woman has achieved a pregnancy via in vitro fertilization (IVF) using donor eggs from a 21-year-old donor and sperm from her 46-year-old husband. She has a sonogram performed at 7 to 12 weeks gestational age that shows a quintuplet pregnancy. A 5-mm nuchal translucency is discovered in one of the embryos. Implications of this include which of the following?
a. b. c. d. e.

    1. The embryo has a high risk of neural tube defect
    2. The embryo has a high risk of cardiac malformation
    3. The nuchal translucency will enlarge by 20 weeks
    4. If the nuchal translucency resolves, the risk of a chromosome abnormality is comparable to that of other embryos
    5. If the embryo is aneuploid, the most likely diagnosis is Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 14: All are absolute indications for cesarean section except

    1. Placenta previa grade IV
    2. Abruptio placenta
    3. Carcinoma cervix Stage IB
    4. Active herpetic lesion
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 15: Ectopic pregnancy is differentiated from abortion by the fact that in ectopic pregnancy

    1. There is slight amount of bleeding
    2. Pain appears after vaginal bleeding
    3. No enlargement of uterus
    4. Histological examination of products of expulsion shows villi
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 16: B Lynch suture is applied on

    1. Cervix
    2. Fallopian tubes
    3. Ovaries
    4. Uterus
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 17: A patient with choriocarcinoma, is not responding to the usual doses of methotrexate. She is having jaundice. Which drug will you prefer for further treatment

    1. Actinomycin D
    2. Cyclophosphamide
    3. Cisplatin
    4. Chlorambucil
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 18: Therapeutic level of magnesium in serum for treatment of eclampsia is

    1. 2-7 mEq/L
    2. 9-12 mEq/L
    3. 15-17 mEq/L
    4. 30-35 mEq/L
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 19: Laproscopic sterlization is contraindicated in all except

    1. Elderly primi
    2. Major disproportion
    3. Minor disproportion
    4. Severe PET
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 20: A G2P1+0+0, Diabetic mother presents at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She gives a history of full term fetal demise during her last pregnancy. Her sugar is now controlled and the child is stable. What is the best plan of action

    1. Await spontaneous delivery
    2. Induce at 38 weeks
    3. Induce at 40 weeks
    4. Cesarian section at 38 weeks
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 21: Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding RU 486 used for MTP

    1. It is a 19 -nortestosterone derivative
    2. It is effective up to 12 weeks of pregnancy
    3. It acts as an inhibitor of progesterone-receptor in the endometrium
    4. A single dose of 200 mg is given orally
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 22: According to MTP Act, 2 doctor's opinion is required when pregnancy is

    1. >12 weeks
    2. >10 weeks
    3. >20 weeks
    4. >8 weeks
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 23: Controlled ovarian hyperstimulation as a treatment for infertility is most useful in which patient

    1. Couples undergoing artificial insemination
    2. Women undergoing cancer therapy
    3. Women with premature ovarian failure
    4. Women with fibroid uterus
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 24: A patient presents with menorrhagia. All the following are possible treatment modalities except

    1. NSAIDs
    2. Tranexamic acid
    3. Progesterone
    4. Clomiphene
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 25: For a menopausal patient having hot flushes, which of the following can be given as treatment

    1. Ethinyl estradiol
    2. Progesterone
    3. Gonadotropin
    4. Danazol
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 26: A 24-year-old woman has had three first-trimester spontaneous abortions. Which of the following statements concerning chromosomal aberrations in abortions is true?

    1. 45,X is more prevalent in chromosomally abnormal term babies than in abortus products
    2. Approximately 20% of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have chromosomal abnormalities
    3. Trisomy 21 is the most common trisomy in abortuses
    4. Despite the relatively high frequency of Down syndrome at term, most Down fetuses abort spontaneously
    5. Stillbirths have twice the incidence of chromosomal abnormalities as live births
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 27: Treatment for 32 ys. old multipara with dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is

    1. Danazol
    2. Prostaglandins
    3. Endometrial ablation
    4. Progesterones
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 28: Following a vaginal delivery, a woman develops a fever, lower abdominal pain and ulterine tenderness. She is alert, and her blood pressure and urine output are good. Large gram positive rods suggestive of clostridia are seen in a smear of cervix. management should include all except

    1. Immediate radiographic examination for gas in uterus
    2. High dose antibiotic therapy
    3. Hysterectomy
    4. Close observation for renal failure or hemolysis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 29: Which one of the following lymph nodes is not involved in carcinoma cervix

    1. Inguinal
    2. Paramertrial
    3. Obturator
    4. Hypogastric
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 30: Treatment of choice for carcinoma cervix IIb in a 35-year old woman is

    1. Radical surgery
    2. Radical radiotherapy
    3. Radical radiotherapy followed by simple hysterectomy
    4. Chemotherapy followed by radical surgery
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 31: Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the following execpt

    1. Air insufflation
    2. Sonosalpingography
    3. Hysterrosalpingography
    4. Laparoscopic chromotubation
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 32: A hypertensive pregnant woman at 34 weeks comes with history of pain in abdomen, bleeding per vaginum and loss of fetal movements. On examinationthe uterus is contracted with increased uterine tone. Fetal heart sounds are absent. The most likely diagosis is

    1. Placenta previa
    2. Hydramnios
    3. Premature labour
    4. Abruptio placenta
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 33: A patient, Shalu, presents with vaginal discharge. Examination of the discharge reveals the presence of Chlamydial infection. The treatment of choice is

    1. Azithromycin + contact tracing
    2. Doxycycline + Metronidazole
    3. Fluconazole + Doxycycline
    4. Metronidazole
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 34: A 35 year old woman with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia of 6 months duration showed an enlarged uterus of 20 weeks which was tender, the possible diagnosis is :

    1. Adenomyosis
    2. Fibroid
    3. Carcinoma endometrium
    4. PID
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 35: Which one is not true regarding Centchroman

    1. It is anti estrogenic
    2. It acts on the endometrium
    3. It is a synthetic hormone
    4. It is developed in India
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 36: In prenatal diagnostic technique Act 1994 which one of the following is not a ground for carrying out prenatal test

    1. Pregnant women above 35 years of age
    2. History of two or more spontaneous abortion of fetal loss.
    3. When fetal heart rate is 160 per min at fifth and 120 per min at ninth month
    4. History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 37: A patient with infertility and PID was investigated and was found in hysterosalpingogram to have beaded fallopian tubes with clubbing of the ampullary end. The diagnosis is most likely to be

    1. Gonococcus
    2. Chlamydia
    3. Tuberculosis
    4. Ureaplasma
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 38: Clinical features of uterine fibroid include all except

    1. Menorrhagia
    2. Sub fertility
    3. Recurrent spontaneous abortion
    4. Constipation
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 39: Treatment of single large fibroid in a 45 years old female

    1. Hysterectomy
    2. Myomectomy
    3. Observe till menopause
    4. Oral pills
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 40: In a patient suspected to have polycystic ovarian disease, LH and FSH should be examined in which part of the menstrual cycle

    1. 1-3 days
    2. 8-10 days
    3. 13-16 days
    4. 24-28 days
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 41: Fetal heart activity can be detected by sonography at about

    1. 5 weeks
    2. 6 weeks
    3. 7 weeks
    4. 8 weeks
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 42: A 25-year-old G3P0 presents for preconception counseling. She has had three first-trimester pregnancy losses. As part of her evaluation for recurrent abortion, she had karyotyping done on herself and her husband. Her husband is 46,XY. She was found to carry a balanced 13;13 translocation. What is the likelihood that her next baby will have an abnormal karyotype?
a. <5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50% e. 100%

    1. <5%
    2. 10%
    3. 25%
    4. 50%
    5. 100%
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 43: Regarding cholestasis in pregnancy, all the following statements are true except

    1. Bilirubin more than 5 mg/dL
    2. SGPT/SGOT ratio less than 60 units
    3. Presence of severe itching
    4. Alkaline phosphatase is increased maximally
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 44: Cause of decubitus ulcer in uterine proplase is

    1. Friction
    2. Venous congestion
    3. Sexual act
    4. Trauma
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 45: Commonest mode of contraception in INDIA

    1. Intra uterine device
    2. Condoms
    3. Sterilization
    4. Oral contraceptive pills(OCP)
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 46: Ectopic pregnancy is seen maximum with

    1. IUCD
    2. OC pills
    3. Barrier method
    4. Tubal insertion
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 47: Treatment of choice for carcinoma cervix IIb in a 35-year old woman is

    1. Radical surgery
    2. Radical radiotherapy
    3. Radical radiotherapy followed by simple hysterectomy
    4. Chemotherapy followed by radical surgery
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 48: Which one of the following is NOT used in the treatment of poor postcoital test in infertility

    1. Condom therapy
    2. Estrogen in mid-cycle
    3. Intrauterine insemination
    4. Antioxidant therapy to male
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 49: The commonest site of ectopic gestation

    1. Ovary
    2. Broad ligament
    3. Fallopian tube
    4. Cervix
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 50: The commonest type of myoma in the body of uterus is

    1. Intramural
    2. Submucous
    3. Subserous
    4. Cervical
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 51: Endometrial carcinoma is predisposed to by all the following except

    1. Ethinyl estradiol
    2. Tamoxifen
    3. Oral contraceptives
    4. Nulliparity
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 52: Medical treatment for endometriosis includes the following, except

    1. Gn RH analogues
    2. Progestins
    3. Corticosteroids
    4. Danazol
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 53: The most common causes for female pseudohermaphroditism is

    1. Ovarian dysgenesis
    2. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    3. Virilising ovarian tumors
    4. Exogenous androgen
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 54: Degeneration of the myomata is more likely to start from

    1. Centre
    2. Periphery
    3. From any portion
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 55: All of the following are known risk factors for development of endometrial carcinoma except

    1. Obesity
    2. Early Menopause
    3. Use of Hormone Replacement Therapy
    4. Family History
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 56: Red degeneration of fibroid is associated with all except

    1. Pregnancy
    2. Aseptic infraction
    3. Thrombosis
    4. Leukocytosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 57: Type of pelvis in which deep transverse arrest occurs is

    1. Android
    2. Anthropoid
    3. Gynecoid
    4. Platy pelloid
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 58: A primigravida at 37 week of gestation reported to labour room with central placenta praevia with heavy bleeding per vaginum. The fetal heart rate was normal at the time of examination. The best management option for her is

    1. Expectant management
    2. Caesarean section
    3. Induction and vaginal delivery
    4. Induction and forceps delivery
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 59: All of the following drugs are used for management of post partum haemorrhage except

    1. Mifepristone (RU-486)
    2. Misoprostol
    3. Prostaglandin.
    4. Oxytocin
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 60: A young lady with spontaneous abortions has a history of joint pains and fever. She currently presents with thrombosis of her leg vein. Her APTT is prolonged. The diagnosis is most likely to be

    1. Inherited protein C and S deficit
    2. Factor XII deficiency
    3. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
    4. Increased antithrombin III levels
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 61: Pyometra is a complication associated with all of the following conditions except

    1. Carcinoma of the vulva
    2. Carcinoma of the cervix.
    3. Carcinoma of endometrium
    4. Pelvic radiotherapy
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 62: All are true about cephalhematoma except

    1. Occurs due to subcutaneous edema
    2. Seen mostly over occipital bone
    3. Treatment is by aspiration
    4. Varies in size when the child cries
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 63: The most common major complication with Laparoscopic hysterectomy is

    1. Pulmonary embolus
    2. Uncontrolled bleeding
    3. Bowel injury
    4. Urinary tract injury
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 64: A multiparous woman aged 40 years, presents with menorahagia and progressively increasing dysmenorrhoea. Most probable diagnosis is

    1. Ca Cervix
    2. Ca Endometrium
    3. Adenomyosis
    4. DUB
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 65: Medical treatment for endometriosis includes the following, except

    1. Progestins
    2. Corticosteroids
    3. Danazol
    4. GnRH
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 66: Red degeneration of fibroid is associated with

    1. Postpartum
    2. 3rd trimester
    3. 2nd trimester
    4. 1st trimester
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 67: While performing a fractional curettage for perimenopausal bleeding which procedure is performed first

    1. Endocervical curettage
    2. Uterine sounding
    3. Exocervical punch biopsy
    4. Dilatation of the cervix
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 68: Which one of the following is true regarding median episiotomy

    1. Blood loss is more
    2. More likely to extend to the anal sphincter
    3. Anatomical apposition is poor
    4. There is increased incidence of dyspareunia
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 69: The data are most convincing for which theory as the pathogenesis of endometriosis in the peritoneal cavity

    1. Embryonic rests
    2. Lymphatic & vascular metastasis
    3. Induction
    4. Coelomic metaplasia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 70: Drug used in last stage of endometrial carcinoma is

    1. Danazol
    2. O.C. Pills
    3. Cisplatin
    4. Levonorgestrol
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 71: Which one of the following is the most common problem associated with the use of condom

    1. Increased monilial infection of vagina
    2. Premature ejaculation
    3. Contact dermatitis
    4. Retention of urine
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 72: In a case of ectopic pregnancy, medical treatment is contraindicated if

    1. Sac size is 3.0 cm
    2. Serum HCG levels > 1500 miu / ml
    3. Significant hemoperitoneum is present
    4. Absent fetal activity
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 73: Amoniotic fluid at 38 weeks in normal pregnancy is

    1. 800 cc
    2. 1100 cc
    3. 1400 cc
    4. 1800 cc
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 74: Most common cause of ectopic pregnancy is

    1. IUCD
    2. Previous tubal disease
    3. Endometriosis
    4. Mini pills
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 75: During the first stage of labour the membranes ruptured and the umbilical cord prolapsed. Foetal heart rate is 120-130 per minute; cervix is about 5 cm dilated .Which one of the following will be the appropriate treatment

    1. Repose cord and raise foot end of bed
    2. Repose cord and apply ventouse
    3. Lower segment caesarean section
    4. Forceps delivery under general anesthesia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 76: Medical treatment of ectopic gestation involves use of all the following drugs except

    1. Prostaglandins
    2. RU-486
    3. Methotrexate
    4. Dexamethasone
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 77: The most common side effect of injectable hormonal contaceptive is

    1. Bone density loss
    2. Disruption of menstrual pattern
    3. Risk of breast cancer
    4. Dysmennorrhoea
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 78: All are interceptive contraception except

    1. O.C. pills
    2. Centchromen
    3. Levonorgestrol
    4. Mifepristone
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 79: A lady with IUCD becomes pregnant with tail of IUCD being seen next course of action is

    1. MTP
    2. Remove the IUCD
    3. Continue the pregnancy
    4. Remove IUCD and terminate pregnancy
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 80: Which of the following is seen in infant of a diabetic mother

    1. Hypercalcemia
    2. Hyperglycemia
    3. Increased blood viscosity
    4. Hyperkalemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 81: All of the following are the indications for Myomectomy in a case of fibroid uterus, EXCEPT

    1. Associated infertility
    2. Recurrent pregnancy loss
    3. Pressure symptoms
    4. Red degeneration
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 82: A 50 year old woman, nulliparous, diabetic and obese presenting with post-menopausal bleeding can be any of the following except

    1. Carcinoma in situ of cervix
    2. Carcinoma endometrium
    3. DUB
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 83: Hormone Replacement Therapy is contraindicated in

    1. Atherosclerosis
    2. Osteoporosis
    3. Urogenital atrophy
    4. Venous thromboembolism
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 84: A 30 year old female was brought to the OPD on the 4th day after deliver. She was showing mood changes, irritability, fearfullness and anxiety about her baby, had fight with relatives and remained tearful. She is suffering most probably from :

    1. Postpartum depression
    2. Postnatal blues
    3. Puerperal psychosis
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 85: Which one is not true regarding Centchroman

    1. It is ant estrogenic
    2. It acts on the endometrium
    3. It is a synthetic hormone
    4. It is developed in India
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 86: Ectopic pregnancy is managed conservatively by all except

    1. Methotrexate
    2. Salphingostomy
    3. Salphingectomy
    4. Segmental resection
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 87: The following parameters are included in 'Foetal Biophysical Profile ',except

    1. Placental calcification
    2. Amoniotic fluid volume
    3. Non -stress test
    4. Foetal breathing movement
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 88: A patient on OC pills intake develops psychiatric symptoms, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is

    1. Acute intermittent porphyria
    2. Systemic lupus
    3. Thromobosis
    4. Anemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 89: Which of the following regarding Ectopic pregnancy is true

    1. Occurs in about 10% of pregnancies
    2. The risk is increased in those with a history of PID
    3. Usually presents between 2 and 4 months of gestation
    4. Patients usually have a negative pregnancy test
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 90: The patient with pre-eclampsia diagnosed remote from term, which of the following is NOT necessarily an indication for expeditious delivery

    1. Blood Pressure 170/115 on medication
    2. Proteinuria 5g per 24 hours
    3. Platelet count 80,000/ul
    4. Serum transaminase levels three times normal
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 91: Preterm labour is not treated by

    1. Nifedipine
    2. MgSO4
    3. Nitrous oxide patch
    4. Misoprostol
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 92: Fothergill's repair for prolapsed uterus will not lead to

    1. First trimester abortions
    2. Cervical distocia
    3. Premature labor
    4. Premature rupture of membrane
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 93: Laporatomy performed in a case of ovarian tumor revealed unilateral ovarian tumor with ascities positive for malignatn cells and positive pelvic lyjph nodes. All other structures were free of disease. what is stage of the disease

    1. Stage IIc.
    2. Stage IIIa
    3. Stage IIIb
    4. Stage IIIc
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 94: Which of the follwing is responsible for inability to rotate anteriorly in the occipitoposterior position

    1. Moderate size fetus
    2. Gynecoid pelvis
    3. Weak uterine contractions
    4. Good levator ani muscle contractions
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 95: A Para II poorly compensated cardiac patient has delivered 2 days back. You will advise her to

    1. Undergo sterilization (tubectomy) after 1 week
    2. Undergo sterilization after 6 weeks
    3. Suggest her husband to undergo vasectomy
    4. Take oral contraceptive pills after 6 months
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 96: Decubitus ulcer is produced due to

    1. Congestion
    2. Inflammation
    3. Malignancy
    4. Dilatation
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 97: Most common cause of first trimester abortion is

    1. Chromosomal abnormalities
    2. Syphilis
    3. Cervical incompetence
    4. Rhesus isoimmunisation
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 98: The following drugs can beused to suppres lactation, except

    1. Carbergoline
    2. High dose estrogens
    3. Metoclopramide
    4. Pyridoxine
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 99: The severity of pelvic pain in endometriosis correlates best with

    1. Number of implants
    2. Depth of invasion
    3. Stage of disease
    4. Ca 125 levels
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 100: A 30 yrs. old multigravida presented with transverse lie with hand prolapse in IInd stage of labour with dead fetus. The treatment is

    1. Chemical caesarean section
    2. Craniotomy
    3. Cleidotomy
    4. Decapitation
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.

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