(Model Test Paper) PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Pathology)

Test Paper :  PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Pathology)

Question 1: Neonatal thymectomy leads to


    1. Decreased size of germinal center
    2. Decreased size of paracortical areas
    3. Increased antibody production by B cells
    4. Increased bone marrow production of lymphocytes
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 2: All of the following are associated with low C3 levels except

    1. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
    2. Membrano-proliferative Glomerulonephritis
    3. Good pasture's disease
    4. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 3: Which of the following increases the susceptibility to coronary artery disease

    1. Type V hyperlipoproteinaemia
    2. Von will Brand’s disease
    3. Nephritic syndrome
    4. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 4: Recurrent ischemic events following thrombolysis has been patho-physiologically linked to which of the following factors

    1. Antibodies to thrombolytic agents
    2. Fibrinopeptide A
    3. Lipoprotein A
    4. Triglycerides
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 5: All the following can be used to detect mutation except

    1. Single chain polymorphism
    2. Ligase chain reaction
    3. Polymerase chain reaction
    4. Genome sequence chain
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 6: Which of the following procedures are wsed as routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy

    1. C- banding
    2. G- banding
    3. Q- banding
    4. B-rd V- staining
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 7: Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is due to

    1. Oat cell carcinoma
    2. Squmous cell carinoma
    3. Adenocarcinoma
    4. Adenosqumous carcinoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 8: In Henoch-Schonlein purpura, which of the following is seen

    1. Blood in stool
    2. Recurrent infections
    3. Thrombocytopenia
    4. Intracranial hemorrhage
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 9: All the following are seen in asbestosis except

    1. Mesothelioma
    2. Pleural plaque
    3. Calcification
    4. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 10: Which of the following does not cause interstitial lung disease

    1. Tobacco smoke
    2. Sulfur dioxide
    3. Thermophilic actinomycetes
    4. Coal dust
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 11: In a chronic alcoholic all the following are seen in the liver except

    1. Fatty degeneration
    2. Chronic hepatitis
    3. Granuloma formation
    4. Cholestatic hepatitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 12: Most important prognostic factor of carcinoma is

    1. Grade
    2. Stage
    3. Mitotic index
    4. Metastasis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 13: Serum total lactate dehydrogenase level will NOT be raised in

    1. Muscle crush injury
    2. Stroke
    3. Myocardial infrction
    4. Hemolysis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 14: In AML Chromosomal anomaly is seen at

    1. 9 & 22
    2. 21 & 9
    3. 20 & 10
    4. 8 & 14
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 15: Locally malignant tumor is

    1. Chordoma
    2. Chondroma
    3. Choristoma
    4. Hamartoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 16: Munro micro abcess is seen in ?

    1. mycosis fungoides
    2. psoriasis
    3. lichen planus
    4. bacterial infection
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 17: Genotype of Turner Syndrome is

    1. XO
    2. XXO
    3. XXY
    4. XY
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 18: All of the following are poor prognostic factors for acute myeloid leukemias, except

    1. Age more than 60 years
    2. Leucocyte count more than 1,000,000/ml
    3. Secondary leukemias
    4. Presence of t (8:21)
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 19: MHC class 3 Genes encode

    1. Complement Component C3
    2. Tumor necrosis factor
    3. Interleukin 2
    4. Beta 2 microglobulin
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 20: Principal lipoprotein manifestation of heterozygous familial hypercholesterolemia

    1. Increased chylomicrons
    2. Decreased chylomicrons
    3. Increased LDL
    4. Decreased LDL
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 21: Kaposi sarcoma is caused by

    1. Herpes virus
    2. Adeno virus
    3. Arbo virus
    4. Reo virus
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 22: All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except

    1. Protein S deficiency
    2. Malignancy
    3. Obesity
    4. Progesterone therapy
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 23: An albino girls gets married to a normal boy. What are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers

    1. None affected, all carriers
    2. All normal
    3. 50% carriers
    4. 50% affected. 50% carriers
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 24: Which of the following is pan - T laymphocyte carrier

    1. CD 2
    2. CD 3
    3. CD 19
    4. CD 25
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 25: In primary tuberculosis, all the following are seen except

    1. Cavitation
    2. Caseation
    3. Calcification
    4. Langhan giant cell
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 26: Crescents in renal biopsy is seen in

    1. Membranous Glomerulonephritis
    2. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
    3. Rapidly progressive Glomerulonephritis
    4. Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 27: About neutrophills all are incorrect except

    1. 10-20% of all leucocytes
    2. Phagocytosis
    3. Antibody formation
    4. Increase in chronic infections
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 28: Which organ is not involved in MEN I

    1. Pancreas
    2. Adrenals
    3. Parathyroid
    4. Pitutary
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 29: An intestinal biopsy specimen showed macrophages with partially and completely digested bacteria. Which of the following conditions could produce such a picture

    1. Whipple’s disease
    2. Immunoproliferative Small Intestinal Disease
    3. Cholera
    4. Lymphoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 30: The HLA class 3 rejection genes are important elements in

    1. Transplant rejection phenomenon
    2. Governing susceptibility of autoimmune diseases
    3. Immune surveillance
    4. Antigen presentation and elimination
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 31: Thromboxane A2 causes

    1. Vasodilation
    2. Platelet inhibition
    3. Both of above
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 32: Stricture of gut is caused by

    1. Typhoid
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Crohn’s disease
    4. Ulcerative colitis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 33: In polycythemia vera, all the following are seen except

    1. Hyperuricemia
    2. Thrombosis
    3. Evolution into acute leukemia
    4. Spontaneous bacterial infection
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 34: Commonest site for scrofuloderma is

    1. Larynx
    2. Skin
    3. Lymph nodes
    4. Lungs
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 35: Example of type IV hypersensitivity

    1. Coagulase test
    2. Mantoux test
    3. Schick test
    4. Elek’s gel test
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 36: In granuloma, epithelial and giant cells are derived from

    1. T cells
    2. B Cells
    3. Plasma
    4. Macrophages/Monocytes
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 37: All of the following are Autosomal dominant except

    1. Hereditary spherocytosis
    2. Von Willebrand's disease
    3. Hemochromatosis
    4. Familial hypercholestrolemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 38: A 45 day old infant developed icterus and two days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared. Child was found to be positive for HBs Ag. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother's hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be

    1. HBs Ag positive only
    2. HBsAg and HBeAg positivity
    3. HBsAg and anti-Hbe antibody positivity
    4. Mother infected with mutant HBV
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 39: Necrotizing papillitis is seen in all except

    1. Sickle cell disease
    2. Tuberculous pyelonephritis
    3. Diabetes mellitus
    4. Analgesic nephropathy
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 40: DNA analysis of chorionic villus/ amniocentesis NOT likely to detect

    1. tay sachs
    2. hemophilia A
    3. sickle cell disease
    4. duchenne muscular dystrophy
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 41: A 10 year old boy, Pappu, died of acute rheumatic fever. All the following can be expected on autopsy except

    1. Aschoff nodules
    2. Rupture of chordae tendinae
    3. MacCallum patch
    4. Fibrinous pericarditis
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 42: IL-1 is involved in

    1. T lymphocyte activation
    2. Decreased wound healing
    3. Gain in body weight
    4. Macrophage activation
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 43: All the statement about lactoferrin are true, except

    1. It is present in secondary granules of neutrophil
    2. It is present in exocrine secretios of body
    3. It has great affinity for iron
    4. It transports iron for erythropoiesis
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 44: HLA association in Diabetes mellitus is seen in

    1. Type I
    2. Type II
    3. MODY
    4. Malnutrition associated
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 45: A 15 year old healthy boy with no major medical problem complaints that he breaks out with blocky areas of erthema that are pruritic over skin of his arm, leg and trunk every time within an hour of eating sea foods. The clinical features are suggestive of

    1. Localised immune-complex deposition
    2. Cell mediated hypersensitivity
    3. Locallized anaphylaxis
    4. Release of complement C3b
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 46: The inheritance in Dechenne muscular dystrophy is

    1. X- linked recessive
    2. Autosomal dominant
    3. Autosomal recessive
    4. Polygenic
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 47: M4 stage of AML is called as

    1. Acute myelomonoblastic leukemia
    2. Acute monoblastic leukemia
    3. Myelomonocytic leukemia
    4. Monocytic leukemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 48: Lipo-oxygenase mediated chemotoxis is by

    1. B4
    2. C4
    3. D4
    4. E4
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 49: Soft, friable node enlargement is seen in

    1. Typhoid
    2. Thallesemia
    3. Syphilis
    4. Lymphoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 50: Disease or infarction of neurological tissue causes it to be replaced by

    1. Fluid
    2. Neuroglia
    3. Proliferation of adjacent nerve cells
    4. Blood vessel
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 51: Histologic hallmark of paget disease of nipple is

    1. Comedo necrosis
    2. Atypical lobular hyperplasia
    3. Infiltration of the epidermis by malignant cells
    4. Desmoplasia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 52: Most sensitve and specific test ofr diagnosis of iron efficiency is

    1. Serum iron levels
    2. Serum ferritin levels
    3. Serum transferrin receptor population
    4. Transferrin saturation
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 53: Friedrich type V hyperlipidemia is due to excess of

    1. HDL
    2. LDL
    3. IDL
    4. Chylomicrons
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 54: All of the following are morphologic feature of apoptosis except

    1. Cell shrinkage
    2. Chromatin condensation
    3. Inflammation
    4. Apoptotic bodies
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 55: Intestinal epithelial cells contain

    1. T cells
    2. B cells
    3. Plasma cells
    4. Macrophages
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 56: Leukoerythroblastic picture may be seen in all of the following except

    1. Thalassemia
    2. Gaucher’s disease
    3. Metastatic carcinoma
    4. Myelofibrosis
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 57: Karyotype in Klienefilter's syndrome

    1. XO
    2. XX
    3. XY
    4. XXY
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 58: What is the size of the microfilter used in blood transfusion sets

    1. 50micro meters
    2. 150micro meters
    3. 170micro meters
    4. 250micro meters
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 59: The tumor most commonly metastasizing to bone is

    1. Neuroblastoma
    2. Wilm’s tumor
    3. Glioma
    4. Sarcoma
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 60: The most pre malignant lesion among the following is

    1. Leukoplakia
    2. Erythroplakia
    3. Metaplasia
    4. Dysplasia
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 61: In early gastric carcinoma malignancy is confined to

    1. Mucosa
    2. Mucosa and submucosa
    3. Gastric wall without lymphnode metaasis
    4. Gastric glands
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 62: The most common inheritance pattern of congenital heart disease is

    1. Autosomal dominant
    2. Autosomal recessive
    3. Sporadic mutations
    4. Multifactorial
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 63: Gluten sensitve enteropthy is most strongly associated with

    1. HLA-DQ2
    2. HLA-DQ4
    3. HLA-DQ3
    4. Blood group ‘B’
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 64: Highly selective proteinuria contains

    1. Fibrinogen and albumin
    2. Transferrin
    3. Transferrin and fibrinogen
    4. Fibrinogen
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 65: All the following are causes for granuloma of the liver except

    1. Sarcoidosis
    2. Candidiasis
    3. Hepatic metastasis
    4. Halothane
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 66: Cells in M4 AML are

    1. Monoblasts & myeloblasts
    2. Myeloblasts only
    3. Monocytes & myelocytes
    4. Erythroid cells
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 67: The intestinal biopsy findings in celiac sprue are all except

    1. Infiltration of lymphocytes in the lamina propria
    2. Crypt hyperplasia
    3. Mucosal thickening
    4. Inflammatory cells in submucosa
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 68: People with healthy immune system usually have CD4 cell count of

    1. 1000-1200 mm3
    2. 800-1000 mm3
    3. 400-800 mm3
    4. 200-400 mm3
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 69: Clinical symptoms associated with primary chylomicronemia:

    1. eruptive xanthomas
    2. hepatosplenomegaly
    3. hypersplenism
    4. lipid-laden foam cells in bone marrow
    5. all of the above
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 70: A person missing from home, found wandering purposefully, well groomed, has some degree of amnesia

    1. dissociative fugue
    2. dissociative amnesia
    3. schizophrenia
    4. dementia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 71: Cell of origin of Meningioma

    1. Archnoid caps cells
    2. Fibroblasts
    3. Oligodendrocytes
    4. Astrocytes
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 72: Which correlate of protective immune response is measured by Mantoux test

    1. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity
    2. Delayed type of hypersensitivity
    3. Antibody dependent cell mediated hypersensitivity
    4. Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 73: Which of the following is not true about Berger’s disease

    1. The pathologic changes are proliferative and usually confined to measangial cells
    2. Hematuria may be gross or microscopic
    3. On immunofluorescence deposits contain both IgA and IgG
    4. Absence of associated protyeinuria is pathognomonic
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 74: In thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, all the following are seen except

    1. Fever
    2. Hypertension
    3. Thrombocytopenia
    4. Anemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 75: All the following are seen in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria except

    1. Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
    2. Aplastic anemia
    3. Thrombosis
    4. Iron deficiency anemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 76: Gouty tophi for microscopic examination is transferred in

    1. Formalin
    2. Alcohol
    3. Distilled water
    4. Normal saline
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 77: Most common tumour of appendix

    1. Carcinoid
    2. Squmous cell carcinoma
    3. Adenocarcinoma
    4. Argentaffin type
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 78: In Giant cell tumour source of cells is

    1. Osteoclasts
    2. Osteoblasts
    3. Osteoid
    4. Unknown
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.

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