(Model Test Paper) PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Pharmacology)

Test Paper :  PG Medical Entrance Examination Model Paper For (Pharmacology)

Question 1: Effective in management of complex partial seizures:


    1. Gabapentin
    2. Lamotrigine
    3. Ethosuximide
    4. Gabapentin and Lamotrigine
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 2: In the heart, the "slow" responses mediated by this ion:

    1. sodium
    2. calcium
    3. magnesium
    4. potassium
    5. chloride
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 3: Very short-acting; substrate for tissue esterases

    1. A) morphine
    2. B) levorphanol
    3. C) remifentanil
    4. D) fentanyl
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 4: Preferred beta-blocking agent to prevent systolic blood pressure increases associated with direct laryngoscopy in tracheal intubation:

    1. IV propranolol (Inderal)
    2. IV labetalol (Trandate, Normodyne)
    3. IV esmolol (Brevibloc)
    4. IV timolol (Blocadren)
    5. IV nadolol (Corgard)
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 5: A chronic alcohol and diazepam abuser is hospitalized for management of withdrawal symptoms. Buspirone, an anxiolytic, is administered to alleviate withdrawal, but the symptoms continue and worsen. Why?

    1. Buspirone (BuSpar) dosage too low.
    2. Buspirone (BuSpar) does not exhibit cross-tolerance with sedative-hypnotic/benzodiazepines.
    3. Management of alcohol or benzodiazepine withdrawal must be managed with a stronger drug, such as haloperidol.
    4. Buspirone (BuSpar) is too rapidly inactivated (first-pass effect) to be useful in managing withdrawal.
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 6: Pilocarpine (Pilocar):

    1. dry mouth
    2. pupillary dilation
    3. increased gastrointestinal tone
    4. bronchiolar relaxation
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 7: Reduces preload AND afterload

    1. A) nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    2. B) phentolamine (Regitine)
    3. C) captopril (Capoten)
    4. D) A & C
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 8: Despite strict dietary control, this condition can induce a marked increase in triglyceride serum concentration in a patient with primary chylomicronemia:

    1. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
    2. pregnancy
    3. both
    4. neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 9: Fentanyl (Sublimaze)/sufentanil (Sufenta) & seizure activity:

    1. A) high-dose fentanyl (Sublimaze) or sufentanil (Sufenta): use cautiously if patient has seizure disorder
    2. B) Patients receiving anticonvulsants often require more fentanyl (Sublimaze) during surgery than patients not receiving anticonvulsants
    3. C) both
    4. D) neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 10: Cardiac output related to:

    1. heart rate x peripheral resistance
    2. stroke volume x peripheral resistance
    3. heart rate x arterial pressure
    4. stroke volume x heart rate
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 11: Primary mechaism for termination of norepinephrine and epinephrine action:

    1. metabolic transformation catalyzed by MAO
    2. metabolic transformation catalyzed by COMT
    3. diffusion away from the synaptic cleft and uptake at extraneuronal sites
    4. reuptake into nerve terminals
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 12: Factors enhancing bupivacaine (Marcaine) toxicity

    1. A) pregnancy
    2. B) presence of calcium channel blockers
    3. C) arterial hypoxemia
    4. D) acidosis
    5. E) All of the Above
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 13: Ketamine (Ketalar) anesthesia:

    1. A) awakening may be associated with bad dreams and hallucinations
    2. B) cardiovascular system -- typically depressed due to reduced sympathetic outflow
    3. C) useful (with diazepam (Valium)) in management of emergency surgery and certain pediatric radiological procedures
    4. D) A & C
    5. E) A, B & C
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 14: Highest local anesthetic blood levels associated with this type of regional anesthesia:

    1. A) epidural
    2. B) brachial plexus
    3. C) sciatic
    4. D) intercostal
    5. E) caudal
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 15: Saturable transport systems:

    1. active transport -- carrier mediated
    2. facilitated diffusion -- carrier mediated
    3. lipid diffusion
    4. 1 & 2
    5. None of these
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 16: Reverses respiratory depression cause by opioids:

    1. A) naloxone (Narcan)
    2. B) nalmefene (Revex)
    3. C) naltrexone (ReVia)
    4. D) All of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 17: Antilipid medication -- structural analog of HMG-CoA intermediate

    1. cholestyramine (Questran, Questran Light)
    2. gemfibrozil (Lopid)
    3. pravastatin (Pravachol)
    4. niacin (vitamin B3)
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 18: Probable site -- NO as neurotransmitter:

    1. neuromuscular junction
    2. innervation of the corpora cavernosa
    3. basal ganglia
    4. Renshaw cell
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 19: Droperidol (Inapsine) + fentanyl (Sublimaze):

    1. A) neuroleptic analgesia
    2. B) dissociative anesthesia
    3. C) both
    4. D) neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 20: Side effects of this antihypertensive agent includes tachycardia, angina, reversible lupus-like syndrome

    1. propranolol (Inderal)
    2. mecamylamine (Inversine)
    3. hydralazine (Apresoline)
    4. diazoxide (Hyperstat)
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 21: Principal ion responsible for action potentials in specialized conducting SA nodal and AV nodal tissues:

    1. potassium
    2. sodium
    3. calcium
    4. carbon
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 22: Component(s) of balanced anesthesia may include:

    1. A) muscle relaxants
    2. B) thiopental (Pentothal)
    3. C) midazolam (Versed)
    4. D) All of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 23: The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is

    1. Increases cAMP
    2. Increases guanylate cyclase
    3. Calcium channel blocker
    4. K channel opener
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 24: Antiemetic drug with least side effects

    1. A) chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
    2. B) haloperidol (Haldol)
    3. C) hydroxyzine (Atarax,Vistaril)
    4. D) tropisetron
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 25: Bradycardia is common after injection of

    1. Midazolam
    2. Succinyl choline
    3. Dopamine
    4. Isoprenaline
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 26: Aspirin should not be used in

    1. Dysmenorrhea
    2. Viral infection
    3. Ischemic heart disease
    4. Inflammation
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 27: A neutral molecule that can reversibly dissociates into an anion (negatively charged molecule) and a proton (a hydrogen ion):

    1. weak acid
    2. weak base
    3. 1 & 2
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 28: Hemodynamic responses in anesthetized patients who had been receiving antihypertensive drug treatment:

    1. increased venous return cause by positive-pressure ventilation
    2. excessive responses associated with body position changes
    3. both
    4. neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 29: Neurological adverse effect associated with antipsychotic drug use: occurs late in therapy

    1. A) Parkinson's syndrome
    2. B) Akisthisia
    3. C) Acute dystonic reactions
    4. D) Tardive dyskinesia
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 30: Which is the antagonist of benzodiazepines

    1. Flumazenil
    2. Neostigmine
    3. Naloxone
    4. Sugammadex
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 31: Orthostatic (postural) hypotension

    1. beta receptor activation
    2. alpha receptor activation
    3. alpha receptor blocker
    4. dopamine receptor blockade
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 32: An attack of acute pancreatitis is likely to be the first presenting symptom of this lipoprotein disorder:

    1. familial combined hyperlipoproteinemia
    2. familial ligand-defective ApoB
    3. familial lipoprotein lipase or cofactor deficiency
    4. familial dysbetalipoproteinemia
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 33: i.v. route of administration; few side effects; effective in treating hypertensive crisis:

    1. nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)
    2. nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    3. nicardipine (Cardene)
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 34: Antiemetic drug that works through serotonin (subtype 3) receptor blockade

    1. A) Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
    2. B) Haloperidol (Haldol)
    3. C) Ondansetron (Zofran)
    4. D) All of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 35: Preganglionic fibers terminating on adrenal medullary chromaffin cells release:

    1. norepinephrine
    2. epinephrine
    3. acetylcholine
    4. dopamine
    5. substance P
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 36: Very large polymeric cationic exchange resins:

    1. niacin (vitamin B3)
    2. colestipol (Colestid)
    3. pravastatin (Pravachol)
    4. clofibrate (Abitrate, Atromid-S)
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 37: Phase of the cardiac action potential (in SA nodal cells, for example) that is associated with "diastolic depolarization":

    1. phase 0
    2. phase 1
    3. phase 2
    4. phase 3
    5. phase 4
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 38: Maintenance of antihypertensive drug treatment during perioperative time frame:

    1. associated with increased systemic blood-pressure and heart rate fluctuations during anesthesia
    2. decrease likelihood of arrhythmias
    3. since previously effective antihypertensive drug therapy typically should be continued during the perioperative time frame, the pharmacology of the particular antihypertensive agent need not be considered in the development of the anesthesia plan.
    4. usually, is appropriate to maintaina patient on preoperative diuretics when those drugs are used to reduce blood pressure
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 39: Calcium channel blocker(s) with predominately vascular effects:

    1. diltiazem (Cardiazem)
    2. amlodipine (Norvasc)
    3. verapamil (Isoptin, Calan)
    4. All the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 40: What is/are the most hazardous response to sympathetic stimulation?

    1. A) tachycardia
    2. B) arrhythmias
    3. C) hypertension
    4. D) A & C
    5. E) A, B & C
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 41: Contraindications for morphine use:

    1. A) Addison's disease
    2. B) acute asthma
    3. C) increased ICP
    4. D) acute ulcerative colitis
    5. E) All of the Above
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 42: Interferes with norepinephrine release:

    1. alpha-methyltyrosine by preventing synthesis of a protein that promotes fusion of the vesicle and the presynaptic membrane
    2. bretylium (Bretylol) following a transient stimulation of release by displacement
    3. reserpine
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 43: Effects of muscarinic agonists on the gastrointestinal tract

    1. A) reduced intestinal peristalsis
    2. B) reduced smooth muscle tone
    3. C) reduced contraction amplitude
    4. D) all of the above
    5. E) none of the above
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 44: Anesthesia in patients with severe intracranial hypertension even after steroids, hyperventilation, and diuretic administration

    1. A) isoflurane (Forane) + nitrous oxide
    2. B) enflurane (Ethrane) + thiopental (Pentothal)
    3. C) thiopental (Pentothal) + fentanyl (Sublimaze) boluses/infusion
    4. D) All of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 45: Cytochrome P450 induction (increased, amount of P450 enzyme protein) is often associated with:

    1. A) increased enzyme synthesis rates
    2. B) reduced enzyme degradation rates
    3. C) both
    4. D) neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 46: Succinylcholine (Anectine) should be avoided in hemiplegic/paraplegic patients because:

    1. A) duration of action may be excessive
    2. B) bradycardia may be difficult to manage
    3. C) hyperkalemia may occur
    4. D) renal excretion may be compromised
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 47: Is there a way that the duration of action of 2% lidocaine (Xylocaine) can be significantly increased?

    1. No, but one could use a signficantly higher initial concentration to achieve longer action.
    2. add a vasoconstrictor to the lidocaine solution
    3. both
    4. neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 48: In reference to ionic gradients, the term "electrogenic" means:

    1. that a large membrane capacitance is present
    2. that the membrane is relatively permeable to potassium
    3. that net current flows as a result of ionic transport
    4. that current flows independent of membrane voltage
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 49: Example(s) of second messenger effect(s):

    1. A) increases in cAMP intracellular concentration
    2. B) changes in intracellular calcium concentration
    3. C) phosphoinositide effects
    4. D) all the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 50: Pharmacological action(s) of dopamine (Intropin):

    1. positive inotropism
    2. promotes myocardial norepinephrine release
    3. increases glomerular filtration rates (low-dose)
    4. vasoconstriction by alpha-1 receptor activation (high-dose)
    5. all the above
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 51: Drug-induced severe Parkinsonism associated with the inadvertent synthesis of this pro-toxin.

    1. A) selegiline
    2. B) MPTP
    3. C) primidone
    4. D) amantadine
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 52: Considering enflurane (Ethrane), halothane (Fluothane), and isoflurane (Forane) -- cardiac output is well maintained --

    1. A) enflurane (Ethrane)
    2. B) halothane (Fluothane)
    3. C) isoflurane (Forane)
    4. D) All of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 53: Drug (medicine) of first choice for absence seizures

    1. primidone
    2. ethosuximide
    3. phenytoin
    4. i.v. diazepam
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 54: Adverse effects associated with guanethidine and guanadrel:

    1. A) hypotension (symptomatic)
    2. B) male sexual dysfunction
    3. C) diarrhea
    4. D) A & C
    5. E) A, B & C
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 55: Primary antihypertensive effect due to nitric oxide mediation of smooth muscle relaxation.

    1. atropine
    2. nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    3. mecamylamine (Inversine)
    4. captopril (Capoten)
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 56: Reason that dopamine itself is not used to treat in Parkinson's disease:

    1. too expensive
    2. the problem is cholinergic in nature
    3. dopamine does not cross the blood-brain barrier
    4. levodopa has a higher affinity for the D2 receptor
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 57: Angiotensin II receptor antagonist:

    1. captopril (Capoten)
    2. losartin (Cozaar)
    3. methyldopa (Aldomet)
    4. phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 58: Concerning drug-plasma protein binding:

    1. A) Drugs are seldom bound to plasma proteins
    2. B) volume of distribution is not influenced by protein binding
    3. C) diazepam is an example of the drug that is minimally protein-bound
    4. D) drug clearance is influenced by the extent of protein binding
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 59: Plasma half life of drug indicates

    1. Maximum effective dose of drug
    2. Maximum lethal effect
    3. Potency of drug
    4. Dose frequency interval
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 60: Hyperventilation and ICP reduction:

    1. A) effective for both subacute and acute management
    2. B) decreases CBF by cerebral vasodilation
    3. C) effectiveness independent of cerebrovascular CO2 reactivity
    4. D) All of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 61: Location(s) of cholinergic synaptic sites:

    1. A) neuromuscular junction
    2. B) autonomic effector sites innervated by post-ganglionic sympathetic fibers
    3. C) some CNS synapses
    4. D) A & C
    5. E) B & C
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 62: Stress developed in the wall of ventricle during ejection -- dependencies:

    1. ventricular dimension
    2. aortic pressure
    3. both
    4. neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 63: Corneal microdeposits, blurred vision, and photophobia:

    1. adenosine (Adenocard)
    2. encainide (Enkaid)
    3. amiodarone (Cordarone)
    4. diltiazem (Cardiazem)
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 64: Reflex bradycardia secondary to an abrupt increase in blood pressure may be blocked by:

    1. atropine
    2. mecamylamine (Inversine)
    3. both
    4. neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 65: Major neurotransmitter released at end organ effectors of the thoracolumbar division of the autonomic nervous system:

    1. dopamine (Intropin)
    2. epinephrine
    3. norepinephrine
    4. acetylcholine
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 66: Combination drug therapy useful in management of absence seizures:

    1. Propofol and chlorpromazine
    2. Diazepam and phenytoin
    3. Phenytoin and ethosuximide
    4. Fentanyl and propofol
    5. Thiopental and diazepam
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 67: Examples of "high-extraction" drugs -- related to hepatic drug clearance:

    1. A) morphine
    2. B) meperidine
    3. C) verapamil
    4. D) diltiazem
    5. E) all the above
Correct Answer: 5.


Question 68: Types of glaucoma:

    1. primary
    2. secondary
    3. congenital
    4. all the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 69: Examples of epinephrine metabolic effects

    1. insulin secretion reduced by beta2 adrenergic receptor activation
    2. glucagon secretion: diminished by beta adrenergic receptor activation
    3. free fatty acids: increased
    4. minimal calorigenic effect
    5. glycolysis inhibition
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 70: itric oxide mediates this effect on vascular smooth muscle:

    1. A) smooth muscle relaxation
    2. B) smooth muscle contraction
    3. C) no effect
    4. N/A
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 71: Concerning transfer of basic drugs such as nonionized local anesthetics from mother to fetus is:

    1. A) fetal pH is higher than maternal pH
    2. B) in fetal distress alkalosis contributes to local anesthetic accumulation
    3. C) concerning maternal blood: fetal blood -- gradient is maintained for continual local anesthetic transfer from maternal circulation to fetal circulation
    4. D) None of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 72: Isoflurane (Forane) and blood pressure:

    1. A) neonates: increase blood-pressure, increased heart rate
    2. B) elderly patients: reduced heart rate responses
    3. C) younger patients: reduced heart rate
    4. D) direct pharmacological effects
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 73: Drug not appropriate for antagonist-assisted neuromuscular-blockade reversal, because the dosage requirement is excessive:

    1. A) edrophonium (Tensilon)
    2. B) physostigmine (Antilirium)
    3. C) neostigmine (Prostigmin)
    4. D) pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
    5. E) vecuronium (Norcuron)
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 74: Competitive inhibition:

    1. at high concentrations of agonist, a maximal physiological responds is not possible even in the presence of the antagonist
    2. with competitive inhibition, the dose effect curve is shifted to the right
    3. is irreversible
    4. is produced by antagonists that have the ability to activate receptors
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 75: Which of the following is least likely to cause interstitial nephritis on chronic use

    1. Methicillin
    2. Heparin
    3. Ampicillin
    4. Cephalothin
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 76: Factors that argue against initial use of benztropine in a patient with mild Parkinson's disease:

    1. A) old age
    2. B) prostatic hypertrophy
    3. C) narrow angle glaucoma
    4. D) All of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 77: Which type of glaucoma response to anticholinesterase treatment?

    1. primary
    2. secondary
    3. third
    4. congenital
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 78: Neurogenic hypertension:

    1. pheochromocytoma
    2. aortic coarctation
    3. familial dysautonomia
    4. chronic pyelonephritis
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 79: Other than TB,rifampicin can be used for

    1. Drug resistant Leprosy
    2. Neiserria infections
    3. Legionella pneumonia
    4. All are correct
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 80: Glaucoma category responding to anticholinesterase treatment

    1. A) primary (narrow angle -- acute, congestive)
    2. B) secondary (aphakic --no lens; following cataract surgery)
    3. C) congenital
    4. D) None of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 81: ANS (autonomic nervous system) manifestations in Parkinson's disease:

    1. A) tremor
    2. B) rigidity
    3. C) micrographia
    4. D) sialorrhea
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 82: Normal cardiac impulse propagation sequence:

    1. AV node, His-Purkinje, ventricle, SA node
    2. SA node, His-Purkinje, AV node, ventricle
    3. SA node, AV node, His-Purkinje, ventricle
    4. AV node, SA node, His-Purkinje, ventricle
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 83: Enzyme catalyzing the conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine:

    1. A) dopamine beta-hydroxylase
    2. B) phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase
    3. C) tyrosine hydroxylase
    4. D) dopa decarboxylase
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 84: which antimuscarinic agent might be used in combination with an anticholinesterase when desiring reversal of neuromuscular-blockade and opioid-based maintenance anesthesia has been used:

    1. edrophonium (Tensilon)
    2. high-dose atropine (10-15 ug/kg)
    3. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
    4. None of the above
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 85: Most potent at beta adrenergic receptors

    1. epinephrine
    2. isoproterenol (Isuprel)
    3. norepinephrine
    4. dopamine
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 86: Depolarization in the specialized conduction system, the SA. and AV nodal tissue, is mediated by this ion movement:

    1. sodium
    2. calcium
    3. potassium
    4. chloride
    5. magnesium
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 87: Most common side effect of zidovudine is

    1. Hemolytic Anemia
    2. Myopathy
    3. Bone marrow depression
    4. Hepatotoxicity
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 88: Tizanidine (Zanaflex) pharmacology:

    1. advantages for patients with spasticity (several types)
    2. facilitates nociceptor transmission in dorsal horn
    3. significantly more efficacious compared to diazepam (Valium)
    4. adverse effects: hypertension
    5.
Correct Answer: 1.


Question 89: Drug-drug interaction involving anticonvulsant agents and agents used in anesthesia protocols:

    1. A) phenytoin (Dilantin): may cause increased patient resistance to nondepolarizing muscle relaxant action
    2. B) Carbamazepine (Tegretol) because increased patient resistance to the action of nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
    3. C) both
    4. D) neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 90: Produces epinephrine reversal, converting a pressor response to a deep pressor response:

    1. losartin (Cozaar)
    2. propranolol (Inderal)
    3. metoprolol (Lopressor)
    4. phentolamine (Regitine)
    5. clonidine (Catapres)
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 91: Bond type that is seen in some drug-receptor interactions and tends to very strong, often nearly irreversible:

    1. hydrophobic
    2. electrostatic
    3. covalent
    4. 1 & 2
    5. 1 & 3
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 92: A seizure which varies in its presentations depending upon which part of the cortex is affected; last between 20 and 60 seconds; does not impair the patient's state of consciousness:

    1. Complex partial
    2. Simple partial
    3. Absence
    4. Myoclonic
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 93: Utility of loop diuretics and congestive heart failure:

    1. A) rapid increase in venous capacitance
    2. B) rapid and substantial natriuresis
    3. C) both
    4. D) neither
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 94: Centrally-acting antihypertensive drug

    1. nitroprusside sodium (Nipride)
    2. clonidine (Catapres)
    3. methoxamine (Vasoxyl)
    4. captopril (Capoten)
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 95: Highest nicotinic receptor activity among choline esters:

    1. acetylcholine
    2. atropine
    3. methacholine (Provocholine)
    4. carbachol
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.


Question 96: True about Isoniazid include all except

    1. Kills intracellular bacilli
    2. Kills dormant bacilli
    3. Most dangerous complication is peripheral neuritis
    4. It penetrates all body tissues
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 97: About succinyl choline all are true except

    1. Neostigmine reversal
    2. Persistant depolarization
    3. Short acting
    4. Metabolised by pseudocholinesterase
    5.
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 98: Probable cause of myasthenia gravis:

    1. A) defect in acetylcholine synthesis
    2. B) decreased receptor turnover
    3. C) binding of anti-nicotinic receptor antibodies to the nicotinic receptor
    4. D) None of the Above
    5.
Correct Answer: 3.


Question 99: EC50 mainly reflexs a drug's:

    1. A) maximal effect
    2. B) potency
    3. C) lethality
    4. D) ease of elimination
    5. E) safety
Correct Answer: 2.


Question 100: Metoclopramide (Reglan):

    1. A) dopamine antagonist
    2. B) causes pylorus constriction
    3. C) causes duodenal constriction
    4. D) increases gastroesophageal sphincter tone
    5.
Correct Answer: 4.

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