(Paper) Sample Paper For Medical Exams : Solved Version With Few Explanations (Pg- 5)

Paper : Sample Paper For Medical Exams : Solved Version With Few Explanations

Page -5

101. The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was to be estimated through the measurement of Para Amino Hippuric acid (PAH) clearance. The technician observed the procedures correctly but due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used thrice the recommended does of PAH. The RPF estimated is likely to be:

1. False-high.
2. False-low
3. False-high or false-low depending on the GFR.
4. Correct and is unaffected by the PAH overdose.

Ans. ? [ Ganong mentions that PAH clearance is accurate only in low doses, but what loss of accuracy?? but formula is not affected]


103. Figure below represents the pH of the digestive juices aspirated from the alimentary tract as a function of position along the alimentary tract during digestion of a meal:

<pic 103>

1. A typical value for Y2 is 9.0
2. A typical value for Y3 is 10.0
3. The segment C represents the pylorus.
4. The digestive enzymes active in segment A are inactivated in segment B.

Ans. 4

 

104. Which of the following statements represent most correct interpretation from the ECG wave from given below:

<pic 104>

1. X originated form an atrial ectopic focus.|
2. X reset the cardiac rhythm.
3. Both heart sounds would have been present at X beat.
4. The path of spread of excitation was normal.

Ans. 4

105. All of the following are features of hallucinations, except:

1.It is independent of the will of the observer.
2.Sensory organs are not involved.
3.It is a vivid as that in a true sense perception.
4. It occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus.

Ans. 2

106. All of the following statements regarding bio availability of a drug are true except:

1. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation.
2. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the Area Under Curve (0- ) after oral and intravenous (iv) administration.
3.Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption.
4.Bioavailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data.

Ans. 3

107. The extent to which ionisation of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. which of the following statements is not correct.

1.pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized.
2.Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionisation.
3.Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predicting its behaviour in various body fluids.
4.Phenobarbitonewith a pKa of 7.2 is largely ionized at acid pH and will be about 40% non-ionised in plasma.

Ans. 4

108. Presence of food might be expected to interfere with drug absorption by slowing gastric emptying, or by altering the degree of ionisation of the drug in the stomach. Which of the following statements is not correct example:

1. Absorption of digoxin is delayed by the presence of food.
2. Concurrent food intake may severely reduce the rate of absorption of phenytoin.
3. Presence of food enhances the absorption of hydrochlorthiazide.
4. Anitimalarial drug halofantrine is more extensively absorbed if taken with food.

Ans. 3 [ by exclusion, chioce 4 is correct mentioned in CMDT 2003 page 1441]

109. Defirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with:

1. Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors.
2. Features of intoxication due to alcohol.
3. Sixth nerve palsy.
4. Korsakoff psychosis.

Ans. 1

110. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is the ideal modality for evaluating:

1. Pleural effusion.
2. Interstitial lung disease.
3. Lung mass.
4. Mediastinal adenopathy.

Ans. 2

111. Which one of the following is a recognized X-Ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis?

1. Juxta-articular osteosclerosis.
2. Sacroilitis.
3. Bone erosions.
4. Peri-articular calcification.

Ans 3

112. A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enhanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lessons and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

1. Sarcoidosis.
2. Tuberculosis.
3. Lymphoma.
4. Silicosis.

Ans. 2 [Rim enhancement ~egg shell???]

113. A 60 year old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is:

1. Thymoma
2. Lung Cancer.
3. Hodgkin's lymphoma.
4. Superior vena caval obstruction.

Ans. 4

114. A vitreous aspirate has been collected in an emergency at 9 pm what advice you like to give to the staff on duty regarding the overnight storage of the sample.

1. The sample should be kept at 4° C.
2. The sample should be incubated at 37°C.
3. The sample should be refrigerated deep freezer.
4. The sample should be refrigerated for the initial 3 hours and then incubated at 37°C.

Ans. 1

115. A 20 year old man complains of difficulty in reading the newspaper with his right eye. Three weeks after sustaining a gunshot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is:

1. Macular edema.
2. Sympathetic ophthalmia.
3. Optic nerve avulsion.
4. Delayed vitreous hemorrhage.

Ans 2

116. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with polygonal raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:

1. Trachoma.
2. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
3. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis.
4. Vernal kerato conjunctivitis.

Ans. 4

117. A patient is on follow-up with you after enucleation of a painful blind eye. After enucleation of the eyball, a proper sized artifical prosthetic eye is advised after a postoperative period of:

1. About 10 days
2. About 20 days.
3. 6-8 weeks.
4. 12-24 weeks.

Ans. 3 [3-4 weeks , page 339 Basak Ophthalmology; Dr Ashok & Anand, Stanley Medical College Chennai]

118. A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment:

1. Propamidine.
2. Neosporine.
3. Ketocanazole
4. Polyhexamethylene biguanide.

Ans. 1

119. One unit of fresh blood raisesthe HB% concentration by:

1. 0.1gm%
2. 1gm%
3. 2gm%
4. 2.2gm%

Ans. 2

120. Early stage of trauma is characterized by:

1. Catabolism
2. Anabolism
3. Glycogenesis.
4. Gluconeogenesis.

Ans. 4

121. All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except:

1. protein S deficiency.
2. Malignancy.
3. Obesity.
4. Progesterone therapy.

Ans. 4

122. An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except:

1.Small ventricular septal defect.
2.Papillary muscle dysfunction.
3.Tricuspid regurgitation.
4.Aortic stenosis.

Ans. 4 [ In Harrison 14 ed, All others are mentioned to cause early systolic murmur only choice 4 is not mentioned ( see both CVS and general Murmurs chapter). BUT 'Physical Diagnosis by Golwala says that papilliary muscle dysfunction causes late systoloc murmur, only when muscle rubtures murmur becomes early / pan systolic]

123. Bedsore is an example of:

1.Tropical ulcer.
2.Trophic ulcer.
3.Venous ulcer.
4.Post thrombotic ulcer.

Ans. 2

124. Marjolin's ulcer is a:

1.Malignant ulcer found on the scar of burn.
2.Malignant ulcer found on infected foot.
3.Tropic ulcer.
4.Melency's gangrene.

Ans. 1

125. If a patient with Raynaud's disease immersed his hand in cold water, the hand will

1.Become red.
2.Remain Unchanged.
3.Turn white.
4.Become blue.

Ans 3 [ this delelops on exposure to cold, Order is Pallor--->Cyanosis ---> Rubor (redness due to vasodilation Mnemonic PCR ]

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